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25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union
L
311/1
II
(Non-legislative acts)
REGULATIONS
COMMISSION REGULATION (EU) No 1178/2011
of 3 November 2011
laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew
pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council
(Text with EEA relevance)
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
the relevant essential requirements. However, Regulation
(EC) No 216/2008 envisages the possibility of general
medical practitioners to act as aero-medical examiners
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European
under certain conditions and if permitted under
Union,
national law.
Having regard to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European
Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008 on
(4) Cabin
crew
involved
in
the
operation
of
certain
aircraft
common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a
have to comply with the relevant essential requirements
European Aviation Safety Agency, and repealing Council
set out in Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.
Directive 91/670/EEC, Regulation (EC) No 1592/2002 and
According to that Regulation, cabin crew should be peri
Directive 2004/36/EC (
odically assessed for medical fitness to safely exercise

1 ), and in particular Articles 7(6), 8(5)
and 10(5) thereof,
their assigned safety duties. Compliance must be shown
by an appropriate assessment based on aero-medical best
practice.
Whereas:
(5) Regulation
(EC)
No
216/2008
requires
the
Commission
(1) Regulation
(EC)
No
216/2008
aims
at
establishing
and
to adopt the necessary implementing rules for estab
maintaining a high uniform level of civil aviation safety
lishing the conditions for certifying pilots as well as
in Europe. That Regulation provides for the means of
persons involved in their training, testing or checking,
achieving that objective and other objectives in the
for the attestation of cabin crew members and for the
field of civil aviation safety.
assessment of their medical fitness.
(2) Pilots
involved
in
the
operation
of
certain
aircraft,
as
well
as flight simulation training devices, persons and organi
(6) The
requirements
and
procedures
for
the
conversion
of
sations involved in training, testing or checking of those
national pilot licences and national flight engineer
pilots, have to comply with the relevant essential
licences into pilot licences should be laid down, to
requirements set out in Annex III to Regulation (EC)
ensure that they are allowed to perform their activities
No 216/2008. According to that Regulation pilots as
under harmonised conditions; flight test qualifications
well as persons and organisations involved in their
should also be converted in accordance with this Regu
training should be certified once they have been found
lation.
to comply with essential requirements.
(3) Similarly,
pilots
should
be
issued
with
a
medical (7)
It should be possible for Member States to accept licences
certificate and aero-medical examiners, responsible for
issued by third countries where a level of safety
assessing the medical fitness of pilots, should be
equivalent to that specified by Regulation (EC)
certified once they have been found to comply with
No 216/2008 can be guaranteed; Conditions for the
acceptance of licences issued by third countries should
( 1 ) OJ L 79, 19.3.2008, p. 1.
be laid down.

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Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
(8) In
order
to
ensure
that
training
commenced
before
the
existing national pilots’ licences and of national flight
application of this Regulation may be taken into account
engineers’ licences into pilots’ licences, as well as the
for the purposes of obtaining pilots’ licences, the
conditions for the acceptance of licences from third
conditions for recognising training already completed
countries;
should be laid down; the conditions for recognising
military licences should also be laid down.
(2) the certification of persons responsible for providing flight
training or flight simulation training and for assessing pilots’
(9) It
is
necessary
to
provide
sufficient
time
for
the
aero
skills;
nautical industry and Member State administrations to
adapt to the new regulatory framework, to allow
Member States the time to issue specific types of pilot
licences and medical certificates not covered by the ‘JAR’,
(3) different medical certificates for pilots, the conditions for
and to recognise under certain conditions the validity of
issuing, maintaining, amending, limiting, suspending or
licences and certificates issued, as well as aero-medical
revoking medical certificates, the privileges and responsi
assessment performed, before this Regulation applies.
bilities of the holders of medical certificates as well as the

conditions for the conversion of national medical certificates
into commonly recognised medical certificates;
(10) Council
Directive
91/670/EEC
of
16
December
1991
on
mutual acceptance of personnel licences for the exercise
of functions in civil aviation (
(4) the certification of aero-medical examiners, as well as the

1 ) is repealed in accordance
with Article 69(2) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. The
conditions under which general medical practitioners may
measures adopted by this Regulation are to be regarded
act as aero-medical examiners;
as the corresponding measures.
(5) the periodical aero-medical assessment of cabin crew
(11) In order to ensure a smooth transition and a high
members, as well as the qualification of persons responsible
uniform level of civil aviation safety in the Union, imple
for this assessment.
menting measures should reflect the state of the art,
including best practices, and scientific and technical
progress in the field of pilot training and aircrew aero-
Article 2
medical fitness. Accordingly, technical requirements and
administrative procedures agreed by the International
Definitions
Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) and the Joint
For the purposes of this Regulation, the following definitions
Aviation Authorities until 30 June 2009 as well as
shall apply:
existing legislation pertaining to a specific national
environment, should be considered.
(1) ‘Part-FCL licence’ means a flight crew licence which
(12) The Agency prepared draft implementing rules and
complies with the requirements of Annex I;
submitted them as an opinion to the Commission in
accordance with Article 19(1) of Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008.
(2) ‘JAR’ means joint aviation requirements adopted by the
Joint Aviation Authorities as applicable on 30 June 2009;
(13) The
measures
provided
for
in
this
Regulation
are
in
accordance with the opinion of the Committee estab
(3) ‘Light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL)’ means the leisure pilot
lished by Article 65 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008,
licence referred to in Article 7 of Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008;
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:
(4) ‘JAR-compliant licence’ means the pilot licence and
attached ratings, certificates, authorisations and/or qualifi
Article 1
cations, issued or recognised, in accordance with the
Subject matter
national legislation reflecting JAR and procedures, by a
Member State having implemented the relevant JAR and
This Regulation lays down detailed rules for:
having being recommended for mutual recognition within
the Joint Aviation Authorities’ system in relation to such
JAR;
(1) different ratings for pilots’ licences, the conditions for
issuing, maintaining, amending, limiting, suspending or
revoking licences, the privileges and responsibilities of the
(5) ‘Non-JAR-compliant licence’ means the pilot licence issued
holders of licences, the conditions for the conversion of
or recognised by a Member State in accordance with
national legislation and not having been recommended
( 1 ) OJ L 373, 31.12.1991, p. 21.
for mutual recognition in relation to the relevant JAR;

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(6) ‘Credit’ means the recognition of prior experience or
4. The
conversion
report
shall:
qualifications;
(a) be established by the Member State that issued the pilot
(7) ‘Credit report’ means a report on the basis of which prior
licence in consultation with the European Aviation Safety
experience or qualifications may be recognised;
Agency (the Agency);
(8) ‘Conversion report’ means a report on the basis of which a
(b) describe the national requirements on the basis of which the
licence may be converted into a Part-FCL licence;
pilot licences were issued;
(9) ‘JAR-compliant pilots’ medical certificate and aero-medical
(c) describe the scope of the privileges that were given to the
examiners’ certificate’ means the certificate issued or
pilots;
recognised, in accordance with the national legislation
reflecting JAR and procedures, by a Member State having
implemented the relevant JAR and having been recom
(d) indicate for which requirements in Annex I credit is to be
mended for mutual recognition within the Joint Aviation
given;
Authorities’ system in relation to such JAR;
(e) indicate any limitations that need to be included on the
Part-FCL licences and any requirements the pilot has to
(10) ‘Non-JAR-compliant pilots’ medical certificate and aero-
comply with in order to remove those limitations.
medical examiners’ certificate’ means the certificate issued
or recognised by a Member State in accordance with
national legislation and not having been recommended
5. The conversion report shall include copies of all
for mutual recognition in relation to the relevant JAR.
documents necessary to demonstrate the elements set out in
points (a) to (e) of paragraph 4, including copies of the
relevant national requirements and procedures. When
Article 3
developing the conversion report, Member States shall aim at
Pilot licensing and medical certification
allowing pilots to, as far as possible, maintain their current
scope of activities.
Without prejudice to Article 7, pilots of aircraft referred to in
Article 4(1)(b) and (c) and Article 4(5) of Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008 shall comply with the technical requirements
6. Notwithstanding
paragraphs
1
and
3,
holders
of
a
class
and administrative procedures laid down in Annex I and
rating instructor certificate or an examiner certificate who have
Annex IV to this Regulation.
privileges for single-pilot high performance complex aircraft
shall have those privileges converted into a type rating
instructor certificate or an examiner certificate for single-pilot
Article 4
aeroplanes.
Existing national pilots’ licences
1. JAR-compliant
licences
issued
or
recognised
by
a
Member 7. A
Member
State
may
authorise
a
student
pilot
to
exercise
State before 8 April 2012 shall be deemed to have been issued
limited privileges without supervision before he/she meets all
in accordance with this Regulation. Member States shall replace
the requirements necessary for the issuance of an LAPL under
these licences with licences complying with the format laid
the following conditions:
down in Part-ARA by 8 April 2017 at the latest.
(a) the privileges shall be limited to its national territory or a
2. Non-JAR-compliant
licences
including
any
associated
part of it;
ratings, certificates, authorisations and/or qualifications issued
or recognised by a Member State before the applicability of
this Regulation shall be converted into Part-FCL licences by
(b) the privileges shall be restricted to a limited geographical
the Member State that issued the licence.
area and to single-engine piston aeroplanes with a
maximum take-off mass not exceeding 2 000 kg, and shall
not include the carriage of passengers;
3. Non-JAR-compliant
licences
shall
be
converted
into
Part-
FCL licences and associated ratings or certificates in accordance
(c) those authorisations shall be issued on the basis of an indi
with:
vidual safety risk assessment carried out by an instructor
following a concept safety risk assessment carried out by
the Member State;
(a) the provisions of Annex II; or
(d) the Member State shall submit periodical reports to the
(b) the elements laid down in a conversion report.
Commission and the Agency every 3 years.

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Article 5
3. When
applying
for
the
airline
transport
pilot
licence
(ATPL) for aeroplanes, the provisions on credit in
Existing national pilots’ medical certificates and aero-
FCL.510.A(c)(2) of Annex I shall be complied with.
medical examiners certificates
1. JAR-compliant
pilots’
medical
certificates
and
aero-medical
examiners’ certificates issued or recognised by a Member State
before this Regulation applies shall be deemed to have been
Article 8
issued in accordance with this Regulation.
Conditions for the acceptance of licences from third
countries
1. Without
prejudice
to
Article
12
of
Regulation
(EC)
2. Member
States
shall
replace
pilots’
medical
certificates
and No 216/2008 and where there are no agreements concluded
aero-medical examiners’ certificates with certificates complying
between the Union and a third country covering pilot licensing,
with the format laid down in Part-ARA by 8 April 2017 at the
Member States may accept third country licences, and associated
latest.
medical certificates issued by or on behalf of third countries, in
accordance with the provisions of Annex III to this Regulation.
3. Non-JAR-compliant
pilot
medical
certificates
and
aero-
medical examiners’ certificates issued by a Member State
2. Applicants
for
Part-FCL
licences
already
holding
at
least
an
before this Regulation applies shall remain valid until the date
equivalent licence, rating or certificate issued in accordance with
of their next revalidation or until 8 April 2017, whichever is
Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country shall
the earlier.
comply with all the requirements of Annex I to this Regulation,
except that the requirements of course duration, number of
lessons and specific training hours may be reduced.
4. The revalidation of the certificates
referred to in
paragraphs 1 and 2 shall comply with the provisions of
Annex IV.
3. The
credit
given
to
the
applicant
shall
be
determined
by
the Member State to which the pilot applies on the basis of a
recommendation from an approved training organisation.
Article 6
Conversion of flight test qualifications
4. Holders
of
an
ATPL
issued
by
or
on
behalf
of
a
third
country in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention
1. Pilots
who
before
this
Regulation
applies
conducted who have completed the experience requirements for the issue
category 1 and 2 flight tests as defined in the Annex to
of an ATPL in the relevant aircraft category as set out in
Commission Regulation (EC) No
1702/2003
( 1 ), or who
Subpart F of Annex I to this Regulation may be given full
provided instruction to flight test pilots, shall have their flight
credit as regards the requirements to undergo a training
test qualifications converted into flight test ratings in accordance
course prior to undertaking the theoretical knowledge exam
with Annex I to this Regulation and, where applicable, flight
inations and the skill test, provided that the third country
test instructor certificates by the Member State that issued the
licence contains a valid type rating for the aircraft to be used
flight test qualifications.
for the ATPL skill test.
2. This
conversion
shall
be
carried
out
in
accordance
with 5. Aeroplane
or
helicopter
type
ratings
may
be
issued
to
the elements established in a conversion report that complies
holders of Part-FCL licences that comply with the requirements
with the requirements set out in Article 4(4) and (5).
for the issue of those ratings established by a third country.
Such ratings will be restricted to aircraft registered in that
third country. This restriction may be removed when the pilot
complies with the requirements in point C.1 of Annex III.
Article 7
Existing national flight engineers’ licences
1. In
order
to
convert
flight
engineer
licences,
issued
in
Article 9
accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention, into
Credit for training commenced prior to the application of
Part-FCL licences, holders shall apply to the Member State
this Regulation
that issued the licences.
1. In
respect
of
issuing
Part-FCL
licences
in
accordance
with
Annex I, training commenced prior to the application of this
Regulation in accordance with the Joint Aviation Authorities
2. Flight
engineer
licences
shall
be
converted
into
Part-FCL requirements and procedures, under the regulatory oversight
licences in accordance with a conversion report that complies
of a Member State recommended for mutual recognition
with the requirements set out in Article 4(4) and (5).
within the Joint Aviation Authorities’ system in relation to the
relevant JAR, shall be given full credit provided that the training
( 1 ) OJ L 243, 27.9.2003, p. 6.
and testing were completed by 8 April 2016 at the latest.

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2.
Training commenced prior to the application of this Regu
2. The
medical
examinations
or
assessments
of
cabin
crew
lation in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention
members that were conducted in accordance with Council
shall be given credit for the purposes of issuing Part-FCL
Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91 ( 1 ) and which are still valid at
licences on the basis of a credit report established by the
the date of application of this Regulation shall be deemed to
Member State in consultation with the Agency.
be valid according to this Regulation until the earlier of the
following:
3. The
credit
report
shall
describe
the
scope
of
the
training,
indicate for which requirements of Part-FCL licences credit is
(a) the end of the validity period determined by the competent
given and, if applicable, which requirements applicants need to
authority in accordance with Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91;
comply with in order to be issued with Part-FCL licences. It
or
shall include copies of all documents necessary to demonstrate
the scope of the training and of the national regulations and
procedures in accordance with which the training was
(b) the end of the validity period provided for in point
commenced.
MED.C.005 of Annex IV.
Article 10
The validity period shall be counted from the date of the last
Credit for pilot licences obtained during military service
medical examination or assessment.
1. In
order
for
holders
of
military
flight
crew
licences
to
obtain Part-FCL licences, they shall apply to the Member State
By the end of the validity period any subsequent aero-medical
where they served.
re-assessment shall be conducted in accordance with Annex IV.
2. The
knowledge,
experience
and
skill
gained
in
military
Article 12
service shall be given credit for the purposes of the relevant
requirements of Annex I in accordance with the elements of a
Entry into force and application
credit report established by the Member State in consultation
with the Agency.
1. This
Regulation
shall
enter
into
force
on
the
20th
day
following its publication in the Official Journal of the European
Union.
3. The
credit
report
shall:
It shall apply from 8 April 2012.
(a) describe the national requirements on the basis of which the
military licences, ratings, certificates, authorisations and/or
qualifications were issued;
2. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, Member States
may decide not to apply the following provisions of Annex I
until 8 April 2015:
(b) describe the scope of the privileges that were given to the
pilots;
(a) the provisions related to pilot licences of powered-lift
aircraft, airships, balloons and sailplanes;
(c) indicate for which requirements of Annex I credit is to be
given;
(b) the provisions of Subpart B;
(d) indicate any limitations that need to be included on the
Part-FCL licences and indicate any requirements pilots
(c) the provisions of points FCL.800, FCL.805, FCL.815 and
have to comply with to remove those limitations;
FCL.820;
(e) include copies of all documents necessary to demonstrate
(d) in the case of helicopters, the provisions of Section 8 of
the elements above, accompanied by copies of the relevant
Subpart J;
national requirements and procedures.
(e) the provisions of Sections 10 and 11 of Subpart J.
Article 11
Cabin crew medical fitness
3. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, Member States
1. Cabin
crew
members
involved
in
the
operation
of
aircraft may decide not to convert non-JAR-compliant aeroplane and
referred to in Article 4(1)(b) and (c) of Regulation (EC)
helicopter licences that they have issued until 8 April 2014.
No 216/2008 shall comply with the technical requirements
and administrative procedures laid down in Annex IV.
( 1 ) OJ L 373, 31.12.1991, p. 4.

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4. By
way
of
derogation
from
paragraph
1,
Member
States 6. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, Member States
may decide not to apply the provisions of this Regulation to
may decide not to apply the provisions of Subpart C of Annex
pilots holding a licence and associated medical certificate issued
IV until 8 April 2014.
by a third country involved in the non-commercial operation of
aircraft specified in Article 4(1)(b) or (c) of Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008 until 8 April 2014.
7. When
a
Member
State
makes
use
of
the
provisions
of
paragraphs 2 to 6 it shall notify the Commission and the
5. By
way
of
derogation
from
paragraph
1,
Member
States Agency. This notification shall describe the reasons for such
may decide not to apply the provisions of Section 3 of Subpart
derogation as well as the programme for implementation
B of Annex IV until 8 April 2015.
containing actions envisaged and related timing.
This Regulation shall be binding in its entirety and directly applicable in all Member States.
Done at Brussels, 3 November 2011.
For the Commission
The President
José Manuel BARROSO

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ANNEX I
[PART-FCL]
SUBPART A
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
FCL.001 Competent authority
For the purpose of this Part, the competent authority shall be an authority designated by the Member State to whom a
person applies for the issue of pilot licences or associated ratings or certificates.
FCL.005 Scope
This Part establishes the requirements for the issue of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates and the
conditions of their validity and use.
FCL.010 Definitions
For the purposes of this Part, the following definitions apply:
‘Aerobatic flight’ means an intentional manoeuvre involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an abnormal
attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight or for instruction for licences or ratings other than
the aerobatic rating.
‘Aeroplane’ means an engine-driven fixed-wing aircraft heavier than air which is supported in flight by the dynamic
reaction of the air against its wings.
‘Aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot’ means a type of aeroplane which is required to be operated with a
co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator certificate.
‘Aircraft’ means any machine which can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the
reactions of the air against the earth’s surface.
‘Airmanship’ means the consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge, skills and attitudes to
accomplish flight objectives.
‘Airship’ means a power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft, with the exception of hot-air airships, which, for the purposes
of this Part, are included in the definition of balloon.
‘Balloon’ means a lighter-than-air aircraft which is not engine-driven and sustains flight through the use of either gas or
an airborne heater. For the purposes of this Part, a hot-air airship, although engine-driven, is also considered a balloon.
‘Basic Instrument Training Device’ (BITD) means a ground-based training device which represents the student pilot’s
station of a class of aeroplanes. It may use screen-based instrument panels and spring-loaded flight controls, providing
a training platform for at least the procedural aspects of instrument flight.
‘Category of aircraft’ means a categorisation of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics, for example
aeroplane, powered-lift, helicopter, airship, sailplane, free balloon.
‘Class of aeroplane’ means a categorisation of single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating.
‘Class of balloon’ means a categorisation of balloons taking into account the lifting means used to sustain flight.
‘Commercial air transport’ means the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
‘Competency’ means a combination of skills, knowledge and attitude required to perform a task to the prescribed
standard.
‘Competency element’ means an action which constitutes a task that has a triggering event and a terminating event that
clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome.
‘Competency unit’ means a discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements.

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‘Co-pilot’ means a pilot operating other than as pilot-in-command, on an aircraft for which more than one pilot is
required, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction for a
licence or rating.
‘Cross-country’ means a flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route, using
standard navigation procedures.
‘Cruise relief co-pilot’ means a pilot who relieves the co-pilot of his/her duties at the controls during the cruise phase of
a flight in multi-pilot operations above FL 200.
‘Dual instruction time’ means flight time or instrument ground time during which a person is receiving flight
instruction from a properly authorised instructor.
‘Error’ means an action or inaction taken by the flight crew which leads to deviations from organisational or flight
intentions or expectations.
‘Error management’ means the process of detecting and responding to errors with countermeasures which reduce or
eliminate the consequences of errors, and mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft states.
‘Full Flight Simulator’ (FFS) means a full size replica of a specific type or make, model and series aircraft flight deck,
including the assemblage of all equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent the aircraft in ground and
flight operations, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view, and a force cueing motion system.
‘Flight time’:
for aeroplanes, touring motor gliders and powered-lift, it means the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves
for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight;
for helicopters, it means the total time from the moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start turning until the moment the
helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped;
for airships, it means the total time from the moment an airship is released from the mast for the purpose of taking off
until the moment the airship finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and is secured on the mast;
for sailplanes, it means the total time from the moment the sailplane commences the ground run in the process of
taking off until the moment the sailplane finally comes to a rest at the end of flight;
for balloons, it means the total time from the moment the basket leaves the ground for the purpose of taking off until
the moment it finally comes to a rest at the end of the flight.
‘Flight time under Instrument Flight Rules’ (IFR) means all flight time during which the aircraft is being operated under
the Instrument Flight Rules.
‘Flight Training Device’ (FTD) means a full size replica of a specific aircraft type’s instruments, equipment, panels and
controls in an open flight deck area or an enclosed aircraft flight deck, including the assemblage of equipment and
computer software programmes necessary to represent the aircraft in ground and flight conditions to the extent of the
systems installed in the device. It does not require a force cueing motion or visual system, except in the case of
helicopter FTD levels 2 and 3, where visual systems are required.
‘Flight and Navigation Procedures Trainer’ (FNPT) means a training device which represents the flight deck or cockpit
environment, including the assemblage of equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent an aircraft type
or class in flight operations to the extent that the systems appear to function as in an aircraft.
‘Group of balloons’ means a categorisation of balloons, taking into account the size or capacity of the envelope.
‘Helicopter’ means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more
power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.
‘Instrument flight time’ means the time during which a pilot is controlling an aircraft in flight solely by reference to
instruments.
‘Instrument ground time’ means the time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in simulated instrument flight, in
flight simulation training devices (FSTD).

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‘Instrument time’ means instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
‘Multi-pilot operation’:
for aeroplanes, it means an operation requiring at least 2 pilots using multi-crew cooperation in either multi-pilot or
single-pilot aeroplanes;
for helicopters, it means an operation requiring at least 2 pilots using multi-crew cooperation on multi-pilot heli
copters.
‘Multi-crew cooperation’ (MCC) means the functioning of the flight crew as a team of cooperating members led by the
pilot-in-command.
‘Multi-pilot aircraft’:
for aeroplanes, it means aeroplanes certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots;
for helicopters, airships and powered-lift aircraft, it means the type of aircraft which is required to be operated with a
co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator certificate or equivalent document.
‘Night’ means the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight or such
other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority, as defined by the Member
State.
‘Other training devices’ (OTD) means training aids other than flight simulators, flight training devices or flight and
navigation procedures trainers which provide means for training where a complete flight deck environment is not
necessary.
‘Performance criteria’ means a simple, evaluative statement on the required outcome of the competency element and a
description of the criteria used to judge if the required level of performance has been achieved.
‘Pilot-in-command’ (PIC) means the pilot designated as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of the
flight.
‘Pilot-in-command under supervision’ (PICUS) means a co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-
command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command.
‘Powered-lift aircraft’ means any aircraft deriving vertical lift and in flight propulsion/lift from variable geometry rotors
or engines/propulsive devices attached to or contained within the fuselage or wings.
‘Powered sailplane’ means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines having, with engines inoperative, the char
acteristics of a sailplane.
‘Private pilot’ means a pilot who holds a licence which prohibits the piloting of aircraft in operations for which
remuneration is given, with the exclusion of instruction or examination activities, as established in this Part.
‘Proficiency check’ means the demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral examination
as may be required.
‘Renewal’ (of, e.g. a rating or certificate) means the administrative action taken after a rating or certificate has lapsed for
the purpose of renewing the privileges of the rating or certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the
fulfilment of specified requirements.
‘Revalidation’ (of, e.g. a rating or certificate) means the administrative action taken within the period of validity of a
rating or certificate which allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges of a rating or certificate for a further
specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of specified requirements.
‘Route sector’ means a flight comprising take-off, departure, cruise of not less than 15 minutes, arrival, approach and
landing phases.
‘Sailplane’ means a heavier-than-air aircraft which is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its
fixed lifting surfaces, the free flight of which does not depend on an engine.
‘Single-pilot aircraft’ means an aircraft certificated for operation by one pilot.

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‘Skill test’ means the demonstration of skill for a licence or rating issue, including such oral examination as may be
required.
‘Solo flight time’ means flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an aircraft.
‘Student pilot-in-command’ (SPIC) means a student pilot acting as pilot-in-command on a flight with an instructor
where the latter will only observe the student pilot and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft.
‘Threat’ means events or errors which occur beyond the influence of the flight crew, increase operational complexity
and which must be managed to maintain the margin of safety.
‘Threat management’ means the process of detecting and responding to the threats with countermeasures which reduce
or eliminate the consequences of threats, and mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft states.
‘Touring Motor Glider’ (TMG) means a specific class of powered sailplane having an integrally mounted, non-retractable
engine and a non-retractable propeller. It shall be capable of taking off and climbing under its own power according to
its flight manual.
‘Type of aircraft’ means a categorisation of aircraft requiring a type rating as determined in the operational suitability
data established in accordance with Part-21, and which include all aircraft of the same basic design including all
modifications thereto except those which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics.
FCL.015 Application and issue of licences, ratings and certificates
(a) An application for the issue, revalidation or renewal of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates shall be
submitted to the competent authority in a form and manner established by this authority. The application shall be
accompanied by evidence that the applicant complies with the requirements for the issue, revalidation or renewal of
the licence or certificate as well as associated ratings or endorsements, established in this Part and Part-Medical.
(b) Any limitation or extension of the privileges granted by a licence, rating or certificate shall be endorsed in the licence
or certificate by the competent authority.
(c) A person shall not hold at any time more than one licence per category of aircraft issued in accordance with this Part.
(d) An application for the issue of a licence for another category of aircraft, or for the issue of further ratings or
certificates, as well as an amendment, revalidation or renewal of those licences, ratings or certificates shall be
submitted to the competent authority which initially issued the pilot licence, except when the pilot has requested
a change of competent authority and a transfer of his licensing and medical records to that authority.
FCL.020 Student pilot
A student pilot shall not fly solo unless authorised to do so and supervised by a flight instructor.
Before his/her first solo flight, a student pilot shall be at least:
in the case of aeroplanes, helicopters and airships: 16 years of age;
in the case of sailplanes and balloons: 14 years of age.
FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences
(a) Responsibilities of the applicant
(1) Applicants shall take the entire set of examinations for a specific licence or rating under the responsibility of one
Member State.
(2) Applicants shall only take the examination when recommended by the approved training organisation (ATO)
responsible for their training, once they have completed the appropriate elements of the training course of
theoretical knowledge instruction to a satisfactory standard.
(3) The recommendation by an ATO shall be valid for 12 months. If the applicant has failed to attempt at least one
theoretical knowledge examination paper within this period of validity, the need for further training shall be
determined by the ATO, based on the needs of the applicant.

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(b) Pass standards
(1) A pass in an examination paper will be awarded to an applicant achieving at least 75 % of the marks allocated to
that paper. There is no penalty marking.
(2) Unless otherwise determined in this Part, an applicant has successfully completed the required theoretical
knowledge examination for the appropriate pilot licence or rating when he/she has passed all the required
examination papers within a period of 18 months counted from the end of the calendar month when the
applicant first attempted an examination.
(3) If an applicant has failed to pass one of the examination papers within 4 attempts, or has failed to pass all papers
within either 6 sittings or the period mentioned in paragraph (2), he/she shall re-take the complete set of
examination papers.
Before re-taking the examinations, the applicant shall undertake further training at an ATO. The extent and scope of
the training needed shall be determined by the training organisation, based on the needs of the applicant.
(c) Validity period
(1) The successful completion of the theoretical knowledge examinations will be valid:
(i) for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence, a private pilot licence, a sailplane pilot licence or a balloon pilot
licence, for a period of 24 months;
(ii) for the issue of a commercial pilot licence or instrument rating (IR), for a period of 36 months;
(iii) the periods in (i) and (ii) shall be counted from the day when the pilot successfully completes the theoretical
knowledge examination, in accordance with (b)(2).
(2) The completion of the airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) theoretical knowledge examinations will remain valid
for the issue of an ATPL for a period of 7 years from the last validity date of:
(i) an IR entered in the licence; or
(ii) in the case of helicopters, a helicopter’s type rating entered in that licence.
FCL.030 Practical skill test
(a) Before a skill test for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate is taken, the applicant shall have passed the required
theoretical knowledge examination, except in the case of applicants undergoing a course of integrated flying training.
In any case, the theoretical knowledge instruction shall always have been completed before the skill tests are taken.
(b) Except for the issue of an airline transport pilot licence, the applicant for a skill test shall be recommended for the test
by the organisation/person responsible for the training, once the training is completed. The training records shall be
made available to the examiner.
FCL.035 Crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge
(a) Crediting of flight time
(1) Unless otherwise specified in this Part, flight time to be credited for a licence, rating or certificate shall have been
flown in the same category of aircraft for which the licence or rating is sought.
(2) Pilot-in command or under instruction.
(i) An applicant for a licence, rating or certificate shall be credited in full with all solo, dual instruction or PIC
flight time towards the total flight time required for the licence, rating or certificate.
(ii) A graduate of an ATP integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of student
pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the airline transport pilot
licence, commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or class rating.
(iii) A graduate of a CPL/IR integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of the student
pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the commercial pilot licence
and a multi-engine type or class rating.

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(3) Flight time as co-pilot. Unless otherwise determined in this Part, the holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-
pilot or PICUS, is entitled to be credited with all of the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required for a
higher grade of pilot licence.
(b) Crediting of theoretical knowledge
(1) An applicant having passed the theoretical knowledge examination for an airline transport pilot licence shall be
credited with the theoretical knowledge requirements for the light aircraft pilot licence, the private pilot licence,
the commercial pilot licence and, except in the case of helicopters, the IR in the same category of aircraft.
(2) An applicant having passed the theoretical knowledge examination for a commercial pilot licence shall be credited
with the theoretical knowledge requirement for a light aircraft pilot licence or a private pilot licence in the same
category of aircraft.
(3) The holder of an IR or an applicant having passed the instrument theoretical knowledge examination for a
category of aircraft shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the theoretical knowledge instruction
and examination for an IR in another category of aircraft.
(4) The holder of a pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for theoretical knowledge instruction and
examination for a licence in another category of aircraft in accordance with Appendix 1 to this Part.
This credit also applies to applicants for a pilot licence who have already successfully completed the theoretical
knowledge examinations for the issue of that licence in another category of aircraft, as long as it is within the validity
period specified in FCL.025(c).
FCL.040 Exercise of the privileges of licences
The exercise of the privileges granted by a licence shall be dependent upon the validity of the ratings contained therein, if
applicable, and of the medical certificate.
FCL.045 Obligation to carry and present documents
(a) A valid licence and a valid medical certificate shall always be carried by the pilot when exercising the privileges of the
licence.
(b) The pilot shall also carry a personal identification document containing his/her photo.
(c) A pilot or a student pilot shall without undue delay present his/her flight time record for inspection upon request by
an authorised representative of a competent authority.
(d) A student pilot shall carry on all solo cross-country flights evidence of the authorisation required by FCL.020(a).
FCL.050 Recording of flight time
The pilot shall keep a reliable record of the details of all flights flown in a form and manner established by the competent
authority.
FCL.055 Language proficiency
(a) General. Aeroplane, helicopter, powered-lift and airship pilots required to use the radio telephone shall not exercise
the privileges of their licences and ratings unless they have a language proficiency endorsement on their licence in
either English or the language used for radio communications involved in the flight. The endorsement shall indicate
the language, the proficiency level and the validity date.
(b) The applicant for a language proficiency endorsement shall demonstrate, in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Part,
at least an operational level of language proficiency both in the use of phraseologies and plain language. To do so, the
applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(1) communicate effectively in voice-only and in face-to-face situations;
(2) communicate on common and work-related topics with accuracy and clarity;
(3) use appropriate communicative strategies to exchange messages and to recognise and resolve misunderstandings
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(4) handle successfully the linguistic challenges presented by a complication or unexpected turn of events which
occurs within the context of a routine work situation or communicative task with which they are otherwise
familiar; and
(5) use a dialect or accent which is intelligible to the aeronautical community.
(c) Except for pilots who have demonstrated language proficiency at an expert level, in accordance with Appendix 2 to
this Part, the language proficiency endorsement shall be re-evaluated every:
(1) 4 years, if the level demonstrated is operational level; or
(2) 6 years, if the level demonstrated is extended level.
(d) Specific requirements for holders of an instrument rating (IR). Without prejudice to the paragraphs above, holders of
an IR shall have demonstrated the ability to use the English language at a level that allows them to:
(1) understand all the information relevant to the accomplishment of all phases of a flight, including flight prep
aration;
(2) use radio telephony in all phases of flight, including emergency situations;
(3) communicate with other crew members during all phases of flight, including flight preparation.
(e) The demonstration of language proficiency and of the use of English for IR holders shall be done through a method
of assessment established by the competent authority.
FCL.060 Recent experience
(a) Balloons. A pilot shall not operate a balloon in commercial air transport or carrying passengers unless he/she has
completed in the preceding 180 days:
(1) at least 3 flights as a pilot flying in a balloon, of which at least 1 shall be in a balloon of the relevant class and
group; or
(2) 1 flight in the relevant class and group of balloon under the supervision of an instructor qualified in accordance
with Subpart J.
(b) Aeroplanes, helicopters, powered-lift, airships and sailplanes. A pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air
transport or carrying passengers:
(1) as PIC or co-pilot unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take-offs, approaches and
landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class. The 3 take-offs and
landings shall be performed in either multi-pilot or single-pilot operations, depending on the privileges held by the
pilot; and
(2) as PIC at night unless he/she:
(i) has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 1 take-off, approach and landing at night as a pilot flying in
an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class; or
(ii) holds an IR;
(3) as cruise relief co-pilot unless he/she:
(i) has complied with the requirements in (b)(1); or
(ii) has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 3 sectors as a cruise relief pilot on the same type or class of
aircraft; or
(iii) has carried out recency and refresher flying skill training in an FFS at intervals not exceeding 90 days. This
refresher training may be combined with the operator’s refresher training prescribed in Part-OR.OPS.

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(4) When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of aeroplane with similar handling and operation
characteristics, the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required in (1) may be performed as defined in the
operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21.
(5) When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of non-complex helicopter with similar handling
and operation characteristics, as defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21,
the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required in (1) may be performed in just one of the types, provided that
the pilot has completed at least 2 hours of flight in each of the types of helicopter, during the preceding 6
months.
(c) Specific requirements for commercial air transport:
(1) In the case of commercial air transport, the 90-day period prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(1) and (2) above may
be extended up to a maximum of 120 days, as long as the pilot undertakes line flying under the supervision of a
type rating instructor or examiner.
(2) When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (1), he/she shall complete a training flight in the aircraft
or an FFS of the aircraft type to be used, which shall include at least the requirements described in (b)(1) and (2)
before he/she can exercise his/her privileges.
FCL.065 Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more in commercial air transport
(a) Age 60-64. Aeroplanes and helicopters. The holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years shall not
act as a pilot of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport except:
(1) as a member of a multi-pilot crew; and
(2) provided that such a holder is the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.
(b) Age 65. The holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft
engaged in commercial air transport.
FCL.070 Revocation, suspension and limitation of licences, ratings and certificates
(a) Licences, ratings and certificates issued in accordance with this Part may be limited, suspended or revoked by the
competent authority when the pilot does not comply with the requirements of this Part, Part-Medical or the applicable
operational requirements, in accordance with the conditions and procedures laid down in Part-ARA.
(b) When the pilot has his/her licence suspended or revoked, he/she shall immediately return the licence or certificate to
the competent authority.
SUBPART B
LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT LICENCE — LAPL
SECTION 1
Common requirements
FCL.100 LAPL — Minimum age
Applicants for the LAPL shall be:
(a) in the case of aeroplanes and helicopters, at least 17 years of age;
(b) in the case of sailplanes and balloons, at least 16 years of age.
FCL.105 LAPL — Privileges and conditions
(a) General. The privileges of the holder of an LAPL are to act without remuneration as PIC in non-commercial
operations on the appropriate aircraft category.
(b) Conditions. Applicants for the LAPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the relevant aircraft category and, when
applicable, for the class or type of aircraft used in the skill test.

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FCL.110 LAPL — Crediting for the same aircraft category
(a) Applicants for an LAPL who have held another licence in the same category of aircraft shall be fully credited towards
the requirements of the LAPL in that category of aircraft.
(b) Without prejudice to the paragraph above, if the licence has lapsed, the applicant shall have to pass a skill test in
accordance with FCL.125 for the issue of an LAPL in the appropriate aircraft category.
FCL.115 LAPL — Training course
Applicants for an LAPL shall complete a training course within an ATO. The course shall include theoretical knowledge
and flight instruction appropriate to the privileges given.
FCL.120 LAPL — Theoretical knowledge examination
Applicants for an LAPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, through
examinations on the following:
(a) common subjects:
— Air law,
— Human performance,
— Meteorology, and
— Communications;
(b) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:
— Principles of flight,
— Operational procedures,
— Flight performance and planning,
— Aircraft general knowledge, and
— Navigation.
FCL.125 LAPL — Skill test
(a) Applicants for an LAPL shall demonstrate through the completion of a skill test the ability to perform, as PIC on the
appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with competency appropriate to the privileges
granted.
(b) Applicants for the skill test shall have received flight instruction on the same class or type of aircraft to be used for
the skill test. The privileges will be restricted to the class or type used for the skill test until further extensions are
endorsed on the licence, in accordance with this Subpart.
(c) Pass marks
(1) The skill test shall be divided into different sections, representing all the different phases of flight appropriate to
the category of aircraft flown.
(2) Failure in any item of a section will cause the applicant to fail the entire section. If the applicant fails only 1
section, he/she shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than 1 section will cause the applicant to fail the
entire test.
(3) When the test needs to be repeated in accordance with (2), failure in any section, including those that have been
passed on a previous attempt, will cause the applicant to fail the entire test.
(4) Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in 2 attempts will require further practical training.

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SECTION 2
Specific requirements for the LAPL for aeroplanes — LAPL(A)
FCL.105.A LAPL(A) — Privileges and conditions
(a) The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for aeroplanes are to act as PIC on single-engine piston aeroplanes-land or
TMG with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 2 000 kg or less, carrying a maximum of 3 passengers, such that
there are never more than 4 persons on board of the aircraft.
(b) Holders of an LAPL(A) shall only carry passengers after they have completed, after the issuance of the licence,
10 hours of flight time as PIC on aeroplanes or TMG.
FCL.110.A LAPL(A) — Experience requirements and crediting
(a) Applicants for an LAPL(A) shall have completed at least 30 hours of flight instruction on aeroplanes or TMGs,
including at least:
(1) 15 hours of dual flight instruction in the class in which the skill test will be taken;
(2) 6 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 3 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least 1
cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which 1 full stop landing at an aerodrome different from
the aerodrome of departure shall be made.
(b) Specific requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(S) with TMG extension. Applicants for an LAPL(A) holding an
LAPL(S) with TMG extension shall have completed at least 21 hours of flight time on TMGs after the endorsement of
the TMG extension and complied with the requirements of FCL.135.A(a) on aeroplanes.
(c) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements in (a).
The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where the pilot undergoes the training course, on the basis of a pre-
entry flight test, but shall in any case:
(1) not exceed the total flight time as PIC;
(2) not exceed 50 % of the hours required in (a);
(3) not include the requirements of (a)(2).
FCL.135.A LAPL(A) — Extension of privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane
(a) The privileges of an LAPL(A) shall be limited to the class and variant of aeroplanes or TMG in which the skill test was
taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed in another class the requirements below:
(1) 3 hours of flight instruction, including:
(i) 10 dual take-offs and landings; and
(ii) 10 supervised solo take-offs and landings.
(2) a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in the new class. During this skill test, the applicant
shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the other class in the
following subjects:
(i) Operational procedures;
(ii) Flight performance and planning;
(iii) Aircraft general knowledge.
(b) Before the holder of an LAPL can exercise the privileges of the licence on another variant of aeroplane than the one
used for the skill test, the pilot shall undertake differences or familiarisation training. The differences training shall be
entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent document and signed by the instructor.

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FCL.140.A LAPL(A) — Recency requirements
(a) Holders of an LAPL(A) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed, in the last 24
months, as pilots of aeroplanes or TMG:
(1) at least 12 hours of flight time as PIC, including 12 take-offs and landings; and
(2) refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with an instructor.
(b) Holders of an LAPL(A) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall:
(1) undertake a proficiency check with an examiner before they resume the exercise of the privileges of their licence;
or
(2) perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under the supervision of an
instructor, in order to fulfil the requirements in (a).
SECTION 3
Specific requirements for the LAPL for helicopters — LAPL(H)
FCL.105.H LAPL(H) — Privileges
The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for helicopters are to act as PIC on single-engine helicopters with a maximum
certificated take-off mass of 2 000 kg or less, carrying a maximum of 3 passengers, such that there are never more than 4
persons on board.
FCL.110.H LAPL(H) — Experience requirements and crediting
(a) Applicants for the LAPL(H) shall have completed 40 hours of flight instruction on helicopters. At least 35 hours of
which shall be flown on the type of helicopter that is to be used for the skill test. The flight instruction shall include
at least:
(1) 20 hours of dual flight instruction; and
(2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least 1
cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which one full stop landing at an aerodrome different
from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.
(b) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements in (a).
The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where the pilot undergoes the training course, on the basis of a
pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:
(1) not exceed the total flight time as PIC;
(2) not exceed 50 % of the hours required in (a);
(3) not include the requirements in (a)(2).
FCL.135.H LAPL(H) — Extension of privileges to another type or variant of helicopter
(a) The privileges of an LAPL(H) shall be limited to the specific type and variant of helicopter in which the skill test was
taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed:
(1) 5 hours of flight instruction, including:
(i) 15 dual take-offs, approaches and landings;
(ii) 15 supervised solo take-offs, approaches and landings;

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(2) a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in the new type. During this skill test, the applicant
shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the other type in the
following subjects:
— Operational procedures,
— Flight performance and planning,
— Aircraft general knowledge.
(b) Before the holder of an LAPL(H) can exercise the privileges of the licence in another variant of helicopter than the one
used for the skill test, the pilot shall undertake differences or familiarisation training, as determined in the operational
suitability data established in accordance with Part-21. The differences training shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook
or equivalent record and signed by the instructor.
FCL.140.H LAPL(H) — Recency requirements
(a) Holders of an LAPL(H) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on a specific type when they have completed
on helicopters of that type in the last 12 months:
(1) at least 6 hours of flight time as PIC, including 6 take-offs, approaches and landings; and
(2) refresher training of at least 1 hour total flight time with an instructor.
(b) Holders of an LAPL(H) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall:
(1) pass a proficiency check with an examiner on the specific type before they resume the exercise of the privileges of
their licence; or
(2) perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under the supervision of an
instructor, in order to fulfil the requirements in (a).
SECTION 4
Specific requirements for the LAPL for sailplanes — LAPL(S)
FCL.105.S LAPL(S) — Privileges and conditions
(a) The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for sailplanes are to act as PIC on sailplanes and powered sailplanes. In order
to exercise the privileges on a TMG, the holder shall comply with the requirements in FCL.135.S.
(b) Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only carry passengers after they have completed, after the issuance of the licence,
10 hours of flight time or 30 launches as PIC on sailplanes or powered sailplanes.
FCL.110.S LAPL(S) — Experience requirements and crediting
(a) Applicants for an LAPL(S) shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight instruction in sailplanes, or powered
sailplanes, including at least:
(1) 10 hours of dual flight instruction;
(2) 2 hours of supervised solo flight time;
(3) 45 launches and landings;
(4) 1 solo cross-country flight of at least 50 km (27 NM) or 1 dual cross-country flight of at least 100 km (55 NM).
(b) Of the 15 hours required in (a), a maximum of 7 hours may be completed in a TMG.

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(c) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements in (a).
The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where the pilot undergoes the training course, on the basis of a
pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:
(1) not exceed the total flight time as PIC;
(2) not exceed 50 % of the hours required in (a);
(3) not include the requirements in (a)(2) to (a)(4).
FCL.130.S LAPL(S) — Launch methods
(a) The privileges of the LAPL(S) shall be limited to the launch method included in the skill test. This limitation may be
removed when the pilot has completed:
(1) in the case of winch launch and car launch, a minimum of 10 launches in dual flight instruction, and 5 solo
launches under supervision;
(2) in the case of aero tow or self launch, a minimum of 5 launches in dual flight instruction, and 5 solo launches
under supervision. In the case of self launch, dual flight instruction may be done in a TMG;
(3) in the case of bungee launch, a minimum of 3 launches performed in dual flight instruction or solo under
supervision.
(b) The completion of the additional training launches shall be entered in the logbook and signed by the instructor.
(c) In order to maintain their privileges in each launch method, pilots shall complete a minimum of 5 launches during
the last 24 months, except for bungee launch, in which case pilots shall have completed only 2 launches.
(d) When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (c), he/she shall perform the additional number of launches
flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor in order to renew the privileges.
FCL.135.S LAPL(S) — Extension of privileges to TMG
The privileges of an LAPL(S) shall be extended to a TMG when the pilot has completed in an ATO, at least:
(a) 6 hours of flight instruction on a TMG, including:
(1) 4 hours of dual flight instruction;
(2) 1 solo cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which 1 full stop landing at an aerodrome
different from the aerodrome of departure shall be performed;
(b) a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in a TMG. During this skill test, the applicant shall also
demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the TMG in the following subjects:
— Principles of flight,
— Operational procedures,
— Flight performance and planning,
— Aircraft general knowledge,
— Navigation.
FCL.140.S LAPL(S) — Recency requirements
(a) Sailplanes and powered sailplanes. Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on
sailplanes or powered sailplanes when they have completed on sailplanes or powered sailplanes, excluding TMGs,
in the last 24 months, at least:
(1) 5 hours of flight time as PIC, including 15 launches;
(2) 2 training flights with an instructor.

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(b) TMG. Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on a TMG when they have:
(1) completed on TMGs in the last 24 months:
(i) at least 12 hours of flight time as PIC, including 12 take-offs and landings; and
(ii) refresher training of at least 1 hour total flight time with an instructor.
(2) When the holder of the LAPL(S) also has the privileges to fly aeroplanes, the requirements in (1) may be
completed on aeroplanes.
(c) Holders of an LAPL(S) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) or (b) shall, before they resume the exercise of
their privileges:
(1) pass a proficiency check with an examiner on a sailplane or a TMG, as appropriate; or
(2) perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under the supervision of an
instructor, in order to fulfil the requirements in (a) or (b).
SECTION 5
Specific requirements for the LAPL for balloons — LAPL(B)
FCL.105.B LAPL(B) — Privileges
The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for balloons are to act as PIC on hot-air balloons or hot-air airships with a
maximum of 3 400 m 3 envelope capacity or gas balloons with a maximum of 1 200 m 3 envelope capacity, carrying a
maximum of 3 passengers, such that there are never more than 4 persons on board of the aircraft.
FCL.110.B LAPL(B) — Experience requirements
(a) Applicants for an LAPL(B) shall have completed on balloons of the same class at least 16 hours of flight instruction,
including at least:
(1) 12 hours of dual flight instruction;
(2) 10 inflations and 20 take-offs and landings; and
(3) 1 supervised solo flight with a minimum flight time of at least 30 minutes.
(b) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC on balloons may be credited towards the requirements in (a).
The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where the pilot undergoes the training course, on the basis of a
pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:
(1) not exceed the total flight time as PIC on balloons;
(2) not exceed 50 % of the hours required in (a);
(3) not include the requirements of (a)(2) and (a)(3).
FCL.130.B LAPL(B) — Extension of privileges to tethered flights
(a) The privileges of the LAPL(B) shall be limited to non-tethered flights. This limitation may be removed when the pilot
has completed at least 3 tethered instruction flights.
(b) The completion of the additional training shall be entered in the logbook and signed by the instructor.
(c) In order to maintain this privilege, pilots shall complete a minimum of 2 tethered flights during the last 24 months.
(d) When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (c), he/she shall perform the additional number of tethered
flights flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor in order to renew the privileges.

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FCL.135.B LAPL(B) — Extension of privileges to another balloon class
The privileges of the LAPL(B) shall be limited to the class of balloons in which the skill test was taken. This limitation
may be removed when the pilot has completed in the other class, at an ATO, at least:
(a) 5 dual instruction flights; or
(b) in the case of an LAPL(B) for hot-air balloons wishing to extend their privileges to hot-air airships, 5 hours of dual
flight instruction time; and
(c) a skill test, during which they shall demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the
other class in the following subjects:
— Principles of flight,
— Operational procedures,
— Flight performance and planning, and
— Aircraft general knowledge.
FCL.140.B LAPL(B) — Recency requirements
(a) Holders of an LAPL(B) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed, in one class of
balloons in the last 24 months, at least:
(1) 6 hours of flight time as PIC, including 10 take-offs and landings; and
(2) 1 training flight with an instructor;
(3) in addition, if the pilot is qualified to fly more than one class of balloons, in order to exercise their privileges in
the other class, they shall have completed at least 3 hours of flight time in that class within the last 24 months,
including 3 take-offs and landings.
(b) Holders of an LAPL(B) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall, before they resume the exercise of their
privileges:
(1) pass a proficiency check with an examiner in the appropriate class; or
(2) perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under the supervision of an
instructor, in order to fulfil the requirements in (a).
SUBPART C
PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL), SAILPLANE PILOT LICENCE (SPL) AND BALLOON PILOT LICENCE (BPL)
SECTION 1
Common requirements
FCL.200 Minimum age
(a) An applicant for a PPL shall be at least 17 years of age;
(b) An applicant for a BPL or an SPL shall be at least 16 years of age.
FCL.205 Conditions
Applicants for the issue of a PPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the class or type rating for the aircraft used in
the skill test, as established in Subpart H.
FCL.210 Training course
Applicants for a BPL, SPL or PPL shall complete a training course at an ATO. The course shall include theoretical
knowledge and flight instruction appropriate to the privileges given.

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FCL.215 Theoretical knowledge examination
Applicants for a BPL, SPL or PPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted
through examinations in the following subjects:
(a) common subjects:
— Air law,
— Human performance,
— Meteorology, and
— Communications;
(b) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:
— Principles of flight,
— Operational procedures,
— Flight performance and planning,
— Aircraft general knowledge, and
— Navigation.
FCL.235 Skill test
(a) Applicants for a BPL, SPL or PPL shall demonstrate through the completion of a skill test the ability to perform, as PIC
on the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with competency appropriate to the
privileges granted.
(b) An applicant for the skill test shall have received flight instruction on the same class or type of aircraft, or a group of
balloons to be used for the skill test.
(c) Pass marks
(1) The skill test shall be divided into different sections, representing all the different phases of flight appropriate to
the category of aircraft flown.
(2) Failure in any item of a section will cause the applicant to fail the entire section. Failure in more than 1 section
will cause the applicant to fail the entire test. If the applicant fails only 1 section, he/she shall repeat only that
section.
(3) When the test needs to be repeated in accordance with (2), failure in any section, including those that have been
passed on a previous attempt, will cause the applicant to fail the entire test.
(4) Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in 2 attempts will require further training.
SECTION 2
Specific requirements for the PPL aeroplanes — PPL(A)
FCL.205.A PPL(A) — Privileges
(a) The privileges of the holder of a PPL(A) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs
engaged in non-commercial operations.
(b) Notwithstanding the paragraph above, the holder of a PPL(A) with instructor or examiner privileges may receive
remuneration for:
(1) the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(A) or PPL(A);
(2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences;
(3) the ratings and certificates attached to these licences.

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FCL.210.A PPL(A) — Experience requirements and crediting
(a) Applicants for a PPL(A) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes, 5 of which may
have been completed in an FSTD, including at least:
(1) 25 hours of dual flight instruction; and
(2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least 1
cross-country flight of at least 270 km (150 NM), during which full stop landings at 2 aerodromes different from
the aerodrome of departure shall be made.
(b) Specific requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(A). Applicants for a PPL(A) holding an LAPL(A) shall have
completed at least 15 hours of flight time on aeroplanes after the issue of the LAPL(A), of which at least 10 shall be
flight instruction completed in a training course at an ATO. This training course shall include at least 4 hours of
supervised solo flight time, including at least 2 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least 1 cross-country
flight of at least 270 km (150 NM), during which full stop landings at 2 aerodromes different from the aerodrome of
departure shall be made.
(c) Specific requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(S) with a TMG extension. Applicants for a PPL(A) holding an
LAPL(S) with a TMG extension shall have completed:
(1) at least 24 hours of flight time on TMG after the endorsement of the TMG extension; and
(2) 15 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes in a training course at an ATO, including at least the requirements
of (a)(2).
(d) Crediting. Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception of balloons, shall be
credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC on such aircraft up to a maximum of 10 hours. The amount of
credit given shall in any case not include the requirements in (a)(2).
SECTION 3
Specific requirements for the PPL helicopters — PPL(H)
FCL.205.H PPL(H) — Privileges
(a) The privileges of the holder of a PPL(H) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot of helicopters engaged in
non-commercial operations.
(b) Notwithstanding the paragraph above, the holder of a PPL(H) with instructor or examiner privileges may receive
remuneration for:
(1) the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(H) or the PPL(H);
(2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences;
(3) the ratings and certificates attached to these licences.
FCL.210.H PPL(H) — Experience requirements and crediting
(a) Applicants for a PPL(H) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction on helicopters, 5 of which may
have been completed in an FNPT or FFS, including at least:
(1) 25 hours of dual flight instruction; and
(2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least 1
cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), with full stop landings at 2 aerodromes different from the
aerodrome of departure.
(3) 35 of the 45 hours of flight instruction have to be completed on the same type of helicopter as the one used for
the skill test.

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(b) Specific requirements for an applicant holding an LAPL(H). Applicants for a PPL(H) holding an LAPL(H) shall complete
a training course at an ATO. This training course shall include at least 5 hours of dual flight instruction time and at
least 1 supervised solo cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), with full stop landings at 2 aerodromes
different from the aerodrome of departure.
(c) Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception of balloons, shall be credited
with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC on such aircraft up to a maximum of 6 hours. The amount of credit given
shall in any case not include the requirements in (a)(2).
SECTION 4
Specific requirements for the PPL airships — PPL(As)
FCL.205.As PPL(As) — Privileges
(a) The privileges of the holder of a PPL(As) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot on airships engaged in
non-commercial operations.
(b) Notwithstanding the paragraph above, the holder of a PPL(As) with instructor or examiner privileges may receive
remuneration for:
(1) the provision of flight instruction for the PPL(As);
(2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for this licence;
(3) the ratings or certificates attached to this licence.
FCL.210.As PPL(As) — Experience requirements and crediting
(a) Applicants for a PPL(As) shall have completed at least 35 hours of flight instruction in airships, 5 of which may have
been completed in an FSTD, including at least:
(1) 25 hours of dual flight instruction, including:
(i) 3 hours of cross-country flight training, including 1 cross-country flight of at least 65 km (35 NM);
(ii) 3 hours of instrument instruction;
(2) 8 take-offs and landings at an aerodrome, including masting and unmasting procedures;
(3) 8 hours of supervised solo flight time.
(b) Applicants holding a BPL and qualified to fly hot-air airships shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as
PIC on such airships up to a maximum of 5 hours.
SECTION 5
Specific requirements for the sailplane pilot licence (SPL)
FCL.205.S SPL — Privileges and conditions
(a) The privileges of the holder of an SPL are to act as PIC on sailplanes and powered sailplanes. In order to exercise the
privileges on a TMG, the holder shall have to comply with the requirements in FCL.135.S.
(b) Holders of an SPL shall:
(1) carry passengers only when having completed, after the issuance of the licence, at least 10 hours of flight time or
30 launches as PIC on sailplanes or powered sailplanes;
(2) be restricted to act without remuneration in non-commercial operations until they have:
(i) attained the age of 18 years;
(ii) completed, after the issuance of the licence, 75 hours of flight time or 200 launches as PIC on sailplanes or
powered sailplanes;
(iii) passed a proficiency check with an examiner.

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(c) Notwithstanding (b)(2), the holder of an SPL with instructor or examiner privileges may receive remuneration for:
the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(S) or the SPL;
the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences;
the ratings and certificates attached to these licences.
FCL.210.S SPL — Experience requirements and crediting
(a) Applicants for an SPL shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight instruction on sailplanes or powered sailplanes,
including at least the requirements specified in FCL.110.S.
(b) Applicants for an SPL holding an LAPL(S) shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the issue of an SPL.
Applicants for an SPL who held an LAPL(S) within the period of 2 years before the application shall be fully credited
towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction.
Crediting. Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception of balloons, shall be
credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC on such aircraft up to a maximum of 7 hours. The amount of credit
given shall in any case not include the requirements in of FCL.110.S(a)(2) to (a)(4).
FCL.220.S SPL — Launch methods
The privileges of the SPL shall be limited to the launch method included in the skill test. This limitation may be removed
and the new privileges exercised when the pilot complies with the requirements in FCL.130.S.
FCL.230.S SPL — Recency requirements
Holders of an SPL shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when complying with the recency requirements in
FCL.140.S.
SECTION 6
Specific requirements for the balloon pilot licence (BPL)
FCL.205.B BPL — Privileges and conditions
(a) The privileges of the holder of a BPL are to act as PIC on balloons and hot-air airships.
(b) Holders of a BPL shall be restricted to act without remuneration in non-commercial operations until they have:
(1) attained the age of 18 years;
(2) completed 50 hours of flight time and 50 take-offs and landings as PIC on balloons;
(3) passed a proficiency check with an examiner on a balloon in the specific class.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), the holder of a BPL with instructor or examiner privileges may receive remuneration
for:
(1) the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(B) or the BPL;
(2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences;
(3) the ratings and certificates attached to these licences.
FCL.210.B BPL — Experience requirements and crediting
(a) Applicants for a BPL shall have completed on balloons in the same class and group at least 16 hours of flight
instruction, including at least:
(1) 12 hours of dual flight instruction;
(2) 10 inflations and 20 take-offs and landings; and
(3) 1 supervised solo flight with a minimum flight time of at least 30 minutes.

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(b) Applicants for a BPL holding an LAPL(B) shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the issue of a BPL.
Applicants for a BPL who held an LAPL(B) within the period of 2 years before the application shall be fully credited
towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction.
FCL.220.B BPL — Extension of privileges to tethered flights
The privileges of the BPL shall be limited to non-tethered flights. This limitation may be removed when the pilot complies
with the requirements in FCL.130.B.
FCL.225.B BPL — Extension of privileges to another balloon class or group
The privileges of the BPL shall be limited to the class and group of balloons in which the skill test was taken. This
limitation may be removed when the pilot has:
(a) in the case of an extension to another class within the same group, complied with the requirements in FCL.135.B;
(b) in the case of an extension to another group within the same class of balloons, completed at least:
(1) 2 instruction flights on a balloon of the relevant group; and
(2) the following hours of flight time as PIC on balloons:
(i) for balloons with an envelope capacity between 3 401 m 3 and 6 000 m 3 , at least 100 hours;
(ii) for balloons with an envelope capacity between 6 001 m 3 and 10 500 m 3 , at least 200 hours;
(iii) for balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 10 500 m 3 , at least 300 hours;
(iv) for gas balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 1 260 m 3 , at least 50 hours.
FCL.230.B BPL — Recency requirements
(a) Holders of a BPL shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed in one class of balloons
in the last 24 months at least:
(1) 6 hours of flight time as PIC, including 10 take-offs and landings; and
(2) 1 training flight with an instructor in a balloon within the appropriate class and with the maximum envelope
capacity they have privileges for;
(3) in addition, in the case of pilots qualified to fly more than one class of balloons, in order to exercise their
privileges in the other class, they shall have completed at least 3 hours of flight time on that class within the last
24 months, including 3 take-offs and landings.
(b) Holders of a BPL who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall, before they resume the exercise of their
privileges:
(1) pass a proficiency check with an examiner in a balloon within the appropriate class and with the maximum
envelope capacity they have privileges for; or
(2) perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under the supervision of an
instructor, in order to fulfil the requirements in (a).

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SUBPART D
COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE — CPL
SECTION 1
Common requirements
FCL.300 CPL — Minimum age
An applicant for a CPL shall be at least 18 years of age.
FCL.305 CPL — Privileges and conditions
(a) Privileges. The privileges of the holder of a CPL are, within the appropriate aircraft category, to:
(1) exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL and a PPL;
(2) act as PIC or co-pilot of any aircraft engaged in operations other than commercial air transport;
(3) act as PIC in commercial air transport of any single-pilot aircraft subject to the restrictions specified in FCL.060
and in this Subpart;
(4) act as co-pilot in commercial air transport subject to the restrictions specified in FCL.060.
(b) Conditions. An applicant for the issue of a CPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the class or type rating of the
aircraft used in the skill test.
FCL.310 CPL — Theoretical knowledge examinations
An applicant for a CPL shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted in the following
subjects:
— Air Law,
— Aircraft General Knowledge — Airframe/Systems/Powerplant,
— Aircraft General Knowledge — Instrumentation,
— Mass and Balance,
— Performance,
— Flight Planning and Monitoring,
— Human Performance,
— Meteorology,
— General Navigation,
— Radio Navigation,
— Operational Procedures,
— Principles of Flight,
— Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Communications.
FCL.315 CPL — Training course
An applicant for a CPL shall have completed theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction at an ATO, in
accordance with Appendix 3 to this Part.
FCL.320 CPL — Skill test
An applicant for a CPL shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 4 to this Part to demonstrate the ability to
perform, as PIC of the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency
appropriate to the privileges granted.

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SECTION 2
Specific requirements for the aeroplane category — CPL(A)
FCL.325.A CPL(A) — Specific conditions for MPL holders
Before exercising the privileges of a CPL(A), the holder of an MPL shall have completed in aeroplanes:
(a) 70 hours of flight time:
(1) as PIC; or
(2) made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and the additional flight time as PIC under supervision (PICUS).
Of these 70 hours, 20 shall be of VFR cross-country flight time as PIC, or cross-country flight time made up of at
least 10 hours as PIC and 10 hours as PICUS. This shall include a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300
NM) in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be flown as PIC;
(b) the elements of the CPL(A) modular course as specified in paragraphs 10(a) and 11 of Appendix 3, E to this Part; and
(c) the CPL(A) skill test, in accordance with FCL.320.
SUBPART E
MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENCE — MPL
FCL.400.A MPL — Minimum age
An applicant for an MPL shall be at least 18 years of age.
FCL.405.A MPL — Privileges
(a) The privileges of the holder of an MPL are to act as co-pilot in an aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot.
(b) The holder of an MPL may obtain the extra privileges of:
(1) the holder of a PPL(A), provided that the requirements for the PPL(A) specified in Subpart C are met;
(2) a CPL(A), provided that the requirements specified in FCL.325.A are met.
(c) The holder of an MPL shall have the privileges of his/her IR(A) limited to aeroplanes required to be operated with a
co-pilot. The privileges of the IR(A) may be extended to single-pilot operations in aeroplanes, provided that the licence
holder has completed the training necessary to act as PIC in single-pilot operations exercised solely by reference to
instruments and passed the skill test of the IR(A) as a single-pilot.
FCL.410.A MPL — Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations
(a) Course. An applicant for an MPL shall have completed a training course of theoretical knowledge and flight
instruction at an ATO in accordance with Appendix 5 to this Part.
(b) Examination. An applicant for an MPL shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to the holder of an
ATPL(A), in accordance with FCL.515, and of a multi-pilot type rating.
FCL.415.A MPL — Practical skill
(a) An applicant for an MPL shall have demonstrated through continuous assessment the skills required for fulfilling all
the competency units specified in Appendix 5 to this Part, as pilot flying and pilot not flying, in a multi-engine
turbine-powered multi-pilot aeroplane, under VFR and IFR.
(b) On completion of the training course, the applicant shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part,
to demonstrate the ability to perform the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to
the privileges granted. The skill test shall be taken in the type of aeroplane used on the advanced phase of the MPL
integrated training course or in an FFS representing the same type.

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SUBPART F
AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE — ATPL
SECTION 1
Common requirements
FCL.500 ATPL — Minimum age
Applicants for an ATPL shall be at least 21 years of age.
FCL.505 ATPL — Privileges
(a) The privileges of the holder of an ATPL are, within the appropriate aircraft category, to:
(1) exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL, a PPL and a CPL;
(2) act as PIC of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport.
(b) Applicants for the issue of an ATPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the type rating of the aircraft used in the
skill test.
FCL.515 ATPL — Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations
(a) Course. Applicants for an ATPL shall have completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall be either an
integrated training course or a modular course, in accordance with Appendix 3 to this Part.
(b) Examination. Applicants for an ATPL shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted in
the following subjects:
— Air Law,
— Aircraft General Knowledge — Airframe/Systems/Power plant,
— Aircraft General Knowledge — Instrumentation,
— Mass and Balance,
— Performance,
— Flight Planning and Monitoring,
— Human Performance,
— Meteorology,
— General Navigation,
— Radio Navigation,
— Operational Procedures,
— Principles of Flight,
— VFR Communications,
— IFR Communications.
SECTION 2
Specific requirements for the aeroplane category — ATPL(A)
FCL.505.A ATPL(A) — Restriction of privileges for pilots previously holding an MPL
When the holder of an ATPL(A) has previously held only an MPL, the privileges of the licence shall be restricted to multi-
pilot operations, unless the holder has complied with FCL.405.A(b)(2) and (c) for single-pilot operations.

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FCL.510.A ATPL(A) — Prerequisites, experience and crediting
(a) Prerequisites. Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall hold:
(1) an MPL; or
(2) a CPL(A) and a multi-engine IR for aeroplanes. In this case, the applicant shall also have received instruction in
MCC.
(b) Experience. Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall have completed a minimum of 1 500 hours of flight time in aeroplanes,
including at least:
(1) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes;
(2) (i) 500 hours as PIC under supervision;
or
(ii) 250 hours as PIC; or
(iii) 250 hours, including at least 70 hours as PIC, and the remaining as PIC under supervision;
(3) 200 hours of cross-country flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PIC under supervision;
(4) 75 hours of instrument time of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time; and
(5) 100 hours of night flight as PIC or co-pilot.
Of the 1 500 hours of flight time, up to 100 hours of flight time may have been completed in an FFS and FNPT. Of
these 100 hours, only a maximum of 25 hours may be completed in an FNPT.
(c) Crediting.
(1) Holders of a pilot licence for other categories of aircraft shall be credited with flight time up to a maximum of:
(i) for TMG or sailplanes, 30 hours flown as PIC;
(ii) for helicopters, 50 % of all the flight time requirements of paragraph (b).
(2) Holders of a flight engineer licence issued in accordance with applicable national rules shall be credited with 50 %
of the flight engineer time up to a maximum credit of 250 hours. These 250 hours may be credited against the
1 500 hours requirement of paragraph (a), and the 500 hours requirement of paragraph (b)(1), provided that the
total credit given against any of these paragraphs does not exceed 250 hours.
(d) The experience required in (b) shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken.
FCL.520.A ATPL(A) — Skill test
Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part to demonstrate the ability to
perform, as PIC of a multi-pilot aeroplane under IFR, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency
appropriate to the privileges granted.
The skill test shall be taken in the aeroplane or an adequately qualified FFS representing the same type.
SECTION 3
Specific requirements for the helicopter category — ATPL(H)
FCL.510.H ATPL(H) — Prerequisites, experience and crediting
Applicants for an ATPL(H) shall:
(a) hold a CPL(H) and a multi-pilot helicopter type rating and have received instruction in MCC;

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(b) have completed as a pilot of helicopters a minimum of 1 000 hours of flight time including at least:
(1) 350 hours in multi-pilot helicopters;
(2) (i) 250 hours as PIC; or
(ii) 100 hours as PIC and 150 hours as PIC under supervision; or
(iii) 250 hours as PIC under supervision in multi-pilot helicopters. In this case, the ATPL(H) privileges shall be
limited to multi-pilot operations only, until 100 hours as PIC have been completed;
(3) 200 hours of cross-country flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PIC under supervision;
(4) 30 hours of instrument time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time; and
(5) 100 hours of night flight as PIC or as co-pilot.
Of the 1 000 hours, a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in an FSTD, of which not more than 25
hours may be completed in an FNPT.
(c) Flight time in aeroplanes shall be credited up to 50 % against the flight time requirements of paragraph (b).
(d) The experience required in (b) shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(H) is taken.
FCL.520.H ATPL(H) — Skill test
Applicants for an ATPL(H) shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part to demonstrate the ability to
perform as PIC of a multi-pilot helicopter the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to
the privileges granted.
The skill test shall be taken in the helicopter or an adequately qualified FFS representing the same type.
SUBPART G
INSTRUMENT RATING — IR
SECTION 1
Common requirements
FCL.600 IR — General
Operations under IFR on an aeroplane, helicopter, airship or powered-lift aircraft shall only be conducted by holders of a
PPL, CPL, MPL and ATPL with an IR appropriate to the category of aircraft or when undergoing skill testing or dual
instruction.
FCL.605 IR — Privileges
(a) The privileges of a holder of an IR are to fly aircraft under IFR with a minimum decision height of 200 feet (60 m).
(b) In the case of a multi-engine IR, these privileges may be extended to decision heights lower than 200 feet (60 m)
when the applicant has undergone specific training at an ATO and has passed section 6 of the skill test prescribed in
Appendix 9 to this Part in multi-pilot aircraft.
(c) Holders of an IR shall exercise their privileges in accordance with the conditions established in Appendix 8 to this
Part.
(d) Helicopters only. To exercise privileges as PIC under IFR in multi-pilot helicopters, the holder of an IR(H) shall have at
least 70 hours of instrument time of which up to 30 hours may be instrument ground time.

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FCL.610 IR — Prerequisites and crediting
Applicants for an IR shall:
(a) hold:
(1) at least a PPL in the appropriate aircraft category, and:
(i) the privileges to fly at night in accordance with FCL.810; or
(ii) an ATPL in another category of aircraft; or
(2) a CPL, in the appropriate aircraft category;
(b) have completed at least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC in aeroplanes, helicopters or airships of which at
least 10 or, in the case of airships, 20 hours shall be in the relevant aircraft category.
(c) Helicopters only. Applicants who have completed an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), CPL(H)/IR or CPL(H) integrated training
course shall be exempted from the requirement in (b).
FCL.615 IR — Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction
(a) Course. Applicants for an IR shall have received a course of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at an ATO.
The course shall be:
(1) an integrated training course which includes training for the IR, in accordance with Appendix 3 to this Part; or
(2) a modular course in accordance with Appendix 6 to this Part.
(b) Examination. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted in the
following subjects:
— Air Law,
— Aircraft General Knowledge — Instrumentation,
— Flight Performance and Monitoring,
— Human Performance,
— Meteorology,
— Radio Navigation,
— IFR Communications.
FCL.620 IR — Skill test
(a) Applicants for an IR shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 7 to this Part to demonstrate the ability to
perform the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted.
(b) For a multi-engine IR, the skill test shall be taken in a multi-engine aircraft. For a single-engine IR, the test shall be
taken in a single-engine aircraft. A multi-engine centreline thrust aeroplane shall be considered a single-engine
aeroplane for the purposes of this paragraph.
FCL.625 IR — Validity, revalidation and renewal
(a) Validity. An IR shall be valid for 1 year.
(b) Revalidation.
(1) An IR shall be revalidated within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating.
(2) Applicants who fail to pass the relevant section of an IR proficiency check before the expiry date of the IR shall
not exercise the IR privileges until they have passed the proficiency check.

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(c) Renewal. If an IR has expired, in order to renew their privileges applicants shall:
(1) go through refresher training at an ATO to reach the level of proficiency needed to pass the instrument element
of the skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part; and
(2) complete a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part, in the relevant aircraft category.
(d) If the IR has not been revalidated or renewed within the preceding 7 years, the holder will be required to pass again
the IR theoretical knowledge examination and skill test.
SECTION 2
Specific requirements for the aeroplane category
FCL.625.A IR(A) — Revalidation
(a) Revalidation. Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(A):
(1) when combined with the revalidation of a class or type rating, shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with
Appendix 9 to this Part;
(2) when not combined with the revalidation of a class or type rating, shall:
(i) for single-pilot aeroplanes, complete section 3b and those parts of section 1 relevant to the intended flight, of
the proficiency check prescribed in Appendix 9 to this Part; and
(ii) for multi-engine aeroplanes, complete section 6 of the proficiency check for single-pilot aeroplanes in
accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part by sole reference to instruments.
(3) An FNPT II or an FFS representing the relevant class or type of aeroplane may be used in the case of paragraph
(2), but at least each alternate proficiency check for the revalidation of an IR(A) in these circumstances shall be
performed in an aeroplane.
(b) Cross-credit shall be given in accordance with Appendix 8 to this Part.
SECTION 3
Specific requirements for the helicopter category
FCL.625.H IR(H) — Revalidation
(a) Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(H):
(1) when combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete a proficiency check in accordance with
Appendix 9 to this Part, for the relevant type of helicopter;
(2) when not combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete only section 5 and the relevant parts of
section 1 of the proficiency check established in Appendix 9 to this Part for the relevant type of helicopter. In this
case, an FTD II/III or an FFS representing the relevant type of helicopter may be used, but at least each alternate
proficiency check for the revalidation of an IR(H) in these circumstances shall be performed in a helicopter.
(b) Cross-credit shall be given in accordance with Appendix 8 to this Part.
FCL.630.H IR(H) — Extension of privileges from single-engine to multi-engine helicopters
Holders of an IR(H) valid for single-engine helicopters wishing to extend for the first time the IR(H) to multi-engine
helicopters shall complete:
(a) a training course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours dual instrument instruction time, of which 3 hours may be
in an FFS or FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III; and
(b) section 5 of the skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part on multi-engine helicopters.

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SECTION 4
Specific requirements for the airship category
FCL.625.As IR(As) — Revalidation
Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(As):
(a) when combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete a proficiency check in accordance with
Appendix 9 to this Part, for the relevant type of airship;
(b) when not combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete section 5 and those parts of section 1
relevant to the intended flight of the proficiency check for airships in accordance with Appendix 9 of this part. In this
case, an FTD 2/3 or FFS representing the relevant type may be used, but at least each alternate proficiency check for
the revalidation of an IR(As) in these circumstances shall be performed in an airship.
SUBPART H
CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS
SECTION 1
Common requirements
FCL.700 Circumstances in which class or type ratings are required
(a) Except in the case of the LAPL, SPL and BPL, holders of a pilot licence shall not act in any capacity as pilots of an
aircraft unless they have a valid and appropriate class or type rating, except when undergoing skill tests, or proficiency
checks for renewal of class or type ratings, or receiving flight instruction.
(b) Notwithstanding (a), in the case of flights related to the introduction or modification of aircraft types, pilots may hold
a special certificate given by the competent authority, authorising them to perform the flights. This authorisation shall
have its validity limited to the specific flights.
(c) Without prejudice to (a) and (b), in the case of flights related to the introduction or modification of aircraft types
conducted by design or production organisations within the scope of their privileges, as well as instruction flights for
the issue of a flight test rating, when the requirements of this Subpart may not be complied with, pilots may hold a
flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820.
FCL.705 Privileges of the holder of a class or type rating
The privileges of the holder of a class or type rating are to act as pilot on the class or type of aircraft specified in the
rating.
FCL.710 Class and type ratings — variants
(a) In order to extend his/her privileges to another variant of aircraft within one class or type rating, the pilot shall
undertake differences or familiarisation training. In the case of variants within a type rating, the differences or
familiarisation training shall include the relevant elements defined in the operational suitability data established in
accordance with Part-21.
(b) If the variant has not been flown within a period of 2 years following the differences raining, further differences
training or a proficiency check in that variant shall be required to maintain the privileges, except for types or variants
within the single-engine piston and TMG class ratings.
(c) The differences training shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent record and signed by the instructor as
appropriate.
FCL.725 Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings
(a) Training course. An applicant for a class or type rating shall complete a training course at an ATO. The type rating
training course shall include the mandatory training elements for the relevant type as defined in the operational
suitability data established in accordance with Part-21.
(b) Theoretical knowledge examination. The applicant for a class or type rating shall pass a theoretical knowledge
examination organised by the ATO to demonstrate the level of theoretical knowledge required for the safe
operation of the applicable aircraft class or type.
(1) For multi-pilot aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be written and comprise at least 100
multiple-choice questions distributed appropriately across the main subjects of the syllabus.

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(2) For single-pilot multi-engine aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be written and the number of
multiple-choice questions shall depend on the complexity of the aircraft.
(3) For single-engine aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be conducted verbally by the examiner
during the skill test to determine whether or not a satisfactory level of knowledge has been achieved.
(4) For single-pilot aeroplanes that are classified as high performance aeroplanes, the examination shall be written and
comprise at least 60 multiple-choice questions distributed appropriately across the main subjects of the syllabus.
(c) Skill test. An applicant for a class or type rating shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part to
demonstrate the skill required for the safe operation of the applicable class or type of aircraft.
The applicant shall pass the skill test within a period of 6 months after commencement of the class or type rating
training course and within a period of 6 months preceding the application for the issue of the class or type rating.
(d) An applicant who already holds a type rating for an aircraft type, with the privilege for either single-pilot or multi-
pilot operations, shall be considered to have already fulfilled the theoretical requirements when applying to add the
privilege for the other form of operation on the same aircraft type.
(e) Notwithstanding the paragraphs above, pilots holding a flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820 who were
involved in development, certification or production flight tests for an aircraft type, and have completed either 50
hours of total flight time or 10 hours of flight time as PIC on test flights in that type, shall be entitled to apply for the
issue of the relevant type rating, provided that they comply with the experience requirements and the prerequisites for
the issue of that type rating, as established in this Subpart for the relevant aircraft category.
FCL.740 Validity and renewal of class and type ratings
(a) The period of validity of class and type ratings shall be 1 year, except for single-pilot single-engine class ratings, for
which the period of validity shall be 2 years, unless otherwise determined by the operational suitability data,
established in accordance with Part-21.
(b) Renewal. If a class or type rating has expired, the applicant shall:
(1) take refresher training at an ATO, when necessary to reach the level of proficiency necessary to safely operate the
relevant class or type of aircraft; and
(2) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part.
SECTION 2
Specific requirements for the aeroplane category
FCL.720.A Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of class or type ratings — aeroplanes
Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, an applicant for a
class or type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of the relevant
rating:
(a) Single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes. An applicant for a first class or type rating on a single-pilot multi-engine
aeroplane shall have completed at least 70 hours as PIC on aeroplanes.
(b) Single-pilot high performance non-complex aeroplanes. Before starting flight training, an applicant for a first class or
type rating for a single-pilot aeroplane classified as a high performance aeroplane shall:
(1) have at least 200 hours of total flying experience, of which 70 hours as PIC on aeroplanes; and
(2) (i) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of a course for additional theoretical knowledge undertaken at an
ATO; or
(ii) have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with this Part; or
(iii) hold, in addition to a licence issued in accordance with this Part, an ATPL(A) or CPL(A)/IR with theoretical
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(3) in addition, pilots seeking the privilege to operate the aeroplane in multi-pilot operations shall meet the
requirements of (d)(4).
(c) Single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes. Applicants for the issue of a first type rating for a complex single-
pilot aeroplane classified as a high performance aeroplane shall, in addition to meeting the requirements of (b), have
fulfilled the requirements for a multi-engine IR(A), as established in Subpart G.
(d) Multi-pilot aeroplanes. An applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot aeroplane shall be a student pilot
currently undergoing training on an MPL training course or comply with the following requirements:
(1) have at least 70 hours of flight experience as PIC on aeroplanes;
(2) hold a multi-engine IR(A);
(3) have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with this Part; and
(4) except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:
(i) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in aeroplanes; or
(ii) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC in helicopters and have more than 100 hours of flight
experience as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or
(iii) have at least 500 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or
(iv) have at least 500 hours as a pilot in multi-pilot operations on single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes, in
commercial air transport in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements.
(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (d), a Member State may issue a type rating with restricted privileges for multi pilot
aeroplane that allows the holder of such rating to act as a cruise relief co-pilot above Flight Level 200, provided that
two other members of the crew have a type rating in accordance with paragraph (d).
(f) Additional multi-pilot and single-pilot high performance complex aeroplane type ratings. An applicant for the issue of
additional multi-pilot type ratings and single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes type ratings shall hold a
multi-engine IR(A).
(g) When so determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, the exercise of the
privileges of a type rating may be initially limited to flight under the supervision of an instructor. The flight hours
under supervision shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent record and signed by the instructor. The
limitation shall be removed when the pilot demonstrates that the hours of flight under supervision required by the
operational suitability data have been completed.
FCL.725.A Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of class and type ratings — aeroplanes
Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21:
(a) Single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes.
(1) The theoretical knowledge course for a single-pilot multi-engine class rating shall include at least 7 hours of
instruction in multi-engine aeroplane operations.
(2) The flight training course for a single-pilot multi-engine class or type rating shall include at least 2 hours and 30
minutes of dual flight instruction under normal conditions of multi-engine aeroplane operations, and not less
than 3 hours 30 minutes of dual flight instruction in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight techniques.
(b) Single-pilot aeroplanes-sea. The training course for single-pilot aeroplane-sea ratings shall include theoretical
knowledge and flight instruction. The flight training for a class or type rating-sea for single-pilot aeroplanes-sea
shall include at least 8 hours of dual flight instruction if the applicant holds the land version of the relevant class or
type rating, or 10 hours if the applicant does not hold such a rating.

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FCL.730.A Specific requirements for pilots undertaking a zero flight time type rating (ZFTT) course — aero
planes
(a) A pilot undertaking instruction at a ZFTT course shall have completed, on a multi-pilot turbo-jet aeroplane certificated
to the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness code or on a multi-pilot turbo-prop aeroplane having a
maximum certificated take-off mass of not less than 10 tonnes or a certificated passenger seating configuration of
more than 19 passengers, at least:
(1) if an FFS qualified to level CG, C or interim C is used during the course, 1 500 hours flight time or 250 route
sectors;
(2) if an FFS qualified to level DG or D is used during the course, 500 hours flight time or 100 route sectors.
(b) When a pilot is changing from a turbo-prop to a turbo-jet aeroplane or from a turbo-jet to a turbo-prop aeroplane,
additional simulator training shall be required.
FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation training course — aeroplanes
(a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least:
(1) 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and
(2) 20 hours of practical MCC training, or 15 hours in the case of student pilots attending an ATP integrated course.
An FNPT II MCC or an FFS shall be used. When the MCC training is combined with initial type rating training, the
practical MCC training may be reduced to no less than 10 hours if the same FFS is used for both the MCC and type
rating training.
(b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO.
(c) Unless the MCC course has been combined with a type rating course, on completion of the MCC training course the
applicant shall be given a certificate of completion.
(d) An applicant having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be exempted from the
requirement in (a)(1).
FCL.740.A Revalidation of class and type ratings — aeroplanes
(a) Revalidation of multi-engine class ratings and type ratings. For revalidation of multi-engine class ratings and type
ratings, the applicant shall:
(1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant class or type of aeroplane or
an FSTD representing that class or type, within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating;
and
(2) complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least:
(i) 10 route sectors as pilot of the relevant class or type of aeroplane; or
(ii) 1 route sector as pilot of the relevant class or type of aeroplane or FFS, flown with an examiner. This route
sector may be flown during the proficiency check.
(3) A pilot working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operations
requirements who has passed the operators proficiency check combined with the proficiency check for the
revalidation of the class or type rating shall be exempted from complying with the requirement in (2).
(4) The revalidation of an IR(A), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for the revalidation of a class or
type rating.

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(b) Revalidation of single-pilot single-engine class ratings.
(1) Single-engine piston aeroplane class ratings and TMG ratings. For revalidation of single-pilot single-engine piston
aeroplane class ratings or TMG class ratings the applicant shall:
(i) within the 3 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check in the relevant class in
accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part with an examiner; or
(ii) within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, complete 12 hours of flight time in the relevant
class, including:
— 6 hours as PIC,
— 12 take-offs and 12 landings, and
— a training flight of at least 1 hour with a flight instructor (FI) or a class rating instructor (CRI). Applicants
shall be exempted from this flight if they have passed a class or type rating proficiency check or skill test
in any other class or type of aeroplane.
(2) When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane-land class rating and a TMG rating, they may
complete the requirements of (1) in either class, and achieve revalidation of both ratings.
(3) Single-pilot single-engine turbo-prop aeroplanes. For revalidation of single-engine turbo-prop class ratings
applicants shall pass a proficiency check on the relevant class in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part with
an examiner, within the 3 months preceding the expiry date of the rating.
(c) Applicants who fail to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a class or type
rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved.
SECTION 3
Specific requirements for the helicopter category
FCL.720.H Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings — helicopters
Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, an applicant for
the issue of the first helicopter type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites for
the issue of the relevant rating:
(a) Multi-pilot helicopters. An applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot helicopter type shall:
(1) have at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters;
(2) except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:
(i) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in helicopters; or
(ii) have at least 500 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes; or
(iii) have at least 500 hours as a pilot in multi-pilot operations on multi-engine helicopters;
(3) have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations.
(b) An applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot helicopter type who is a graduate from an ATP(H)/IR,
ATP(H), CPL(H)/IR or CPL(H) integrated course and who does not comply with the requirement of (a)(1), shall have
the type rating issued with the privileges limited to exercising functions as co-pilot only. The limitation shall be
removed once the pilot has:
(1) completed 70 hours as PIC or pilot-in-command under supervision of helicopters;
(2) passed the multi-pilot skill test on the applicable helicopter type as PIC.

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(c) Single-pilot multi-engine helicopters. An applicant for the issue of a first type rating for a single-pilot multi-engine
helicopter shall:
(1) before starting flight training:
(i) have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations; or
(ii) hold a certificate of completion of a pre-entry course conducted by an ATO. The course shall cover the
following subjects of the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge course:
— Aircraft General Knowledge: airframe/systems/power plant, and instrument/electronics,
— Flight Performance and Planning: mass and balance, performance;
(2) in the case of applicants who have not completed an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), or CPL(H)/IR integrated training course,
have completed at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters.
FCL.735.H Multi-crew cooperation training course — helicopters
(a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least:
(1) for MCC/IR:
(i) 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and
(ii) 20 hours of practical MCC training or 15 hours, in the case of student pilots attending an ATP(H)/IR
integrated course. When the MCC training is combined with the initial type rating training for a multi-
pilot helicopter, the practical MCC training may be reduced to not less than 10 hours if the same FSTD is
used for both MCC and type rating;
(2) for MCC/VFR:
(i) 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and
(ii) 15 hours of practical MCC training or 10 hours, in the case of student pilots attending an ATP(H)/IR
integrated course. When the MCC training is combined with the initial type rating training for a multi-
pilot helicopter, the practical MCC training may be reduced to not less than 7 hours if the same FSTD is
used for both MCC and type rating.
(b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO.
An FNPT II or III qualified for MCC, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS shall be used.
(c) Unless the MCC course has been combined with a multi-pilot type rating course, on completion of the MCC training
course the applicant shall be given a certificate of completion.
(d) An applicant having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be exempted from the
requirement in (a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i), as applicable.
(e) An applicant for MCC/IR training who has completed MCC/VFR training shall be exempted from the requirement in
(a)(1)(i), and shall complete 5 hours of practical MCC/IR training.
FCL.740.H Revalidation of type ratings — helicopters
(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of type ratings for helicopters, the applicant shall:
(1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type of helicopter or an FSTD
representing that type within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; and
(2) complete at least 2 hours as a pilot of the relevant helicopter type within the validity period of the rating. The
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(3) When applicants hold more than 1 type rating for single-engine piston helicopters, they may achieve revalidation
of all the relevant type ratings by completing the proficiency check in only 1 of the relevant types held, provided
that they have completed at least 2 hours of flight time as PIC on the other types during the validity period.
The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type.
(4) When applicants hold more than 1 type rating for single-engine turbine helicopters with a maximum certificated
take-off mass up to 3 175 kg, they may achieve revalidation of all the relevant type ratings by completing the
proficiency check in only 1 of the relevant types held, provided that they have completed:
(i) 300 hours as PIC on helicopters;
(ii) 15 hours on each of the types held; and
(iii) at least 2 hours of PIC flight time on each of the other types during the validity period.
The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type.
(5) A pilot who successfully completes a skill test for the issue of an additional type rating shall achieve revalidation
for the relevant type ratings in the common groups, in accordance with (3) and (4).
(6) The revalidation of an IR(H), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for a type rating.
(b) An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a type rating
shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved. In the case of
(a)(3) and (4), the applicant shall not exercise his/her privileges in any of the types.
SECTION 4
Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category
FCL.720.PL Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings — powered-lift aircraft
Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, an applicant for
the first issue of a powered-lift type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites:
(a) for pilots of aeroplanes:
(1) hold a CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL(A);
(2) hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;
(3) have completed more than 100 hours as pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(4) have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in helicopters;
(b) for pilots of helicopters:
(1) hold a CPL/IR(H) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL/IR(H);
(2) hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;
(3) have completed more than 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;
(4) have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes;
(c) for pilots qualified to fly both aeroplanes and helicopters:
(1) hold at least a CPL(H);
(2) hold an IR and ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL in either aeroplanes or helicopters;
(3) hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course in either helicopters or aeroplanes;
(4) have completed at least 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters or aeroplanes;

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(5) have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable, if the pilot has no
experience as ATPL or on multi-pilot aircraft.
FCL.725.PL Flight instruction for the issue of type ratings — powered-lift aircraft
The flight instruction part of the training course for a powered-lift type rating shall be completed in both the aircraft and
an FSTD representing the aircraft and adequately qualified for this purpose.
FCL.740.PL Revalidation of type ratings — powered-lift aircraft
(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of powered-lift type ratings, the applicant shall:
(1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type of powered-lift within the
3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating;
(2) complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least:
(i) 10 route sectors as pilot of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft; or
(ii) 1 route sector as pilot of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft or FFS, flown with an examiner. This route
sector may be flown during the proficiency check.
(3) A pilot working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operations
requirements who has passed the operators proficiency check combined with the proficiency check for the
revalidation of the type rating shall be exempted from complying with the requirement in (2).
(b) An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a type rating
shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until the a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved.
SECTION 5
Specific requirements for the airship category
FCL.720.As Prerequisites for the issue of type ratings — airships
Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, an applicant for
the first issue of an airship type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites:
(a) for multi-pilot airships:
(1) have completed 70 hours of flight time as PIC on airships;
(2) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC on airships.
(3) An applicant who does not comply with the requirement in (2) shall have the type rating issued with the
privileges limited to exercising functions as co-pilot only. The limitation shall be removed once the pilot has
completed 100 hours of flight time as PIC or pilot-in-command under supervision of airships.
FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation training course — airships
(a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least:
(1) 12 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and
(2) 5 hours of practical MCC training;
(3) An FNPT II, or III qualified for MCC, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS shall be used.
(b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO.
(c) Unless the MCC course has been combined with a multi-pilot type rating course, on completion of the MCC training
course the applicant shall be given a certificate of completion.
(d) An applicant having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be exempted from the
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FCL.740.As Revalidation of type ratings — airships
(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of type ratings for airships, the applicant shall:
(1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type of airship within the 3
months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; and
(2) complete at least 2 hours as a pilot of the relevant airship type within the validity period of the rating. The
duration of the proficiency check may be counted towards the 2 hours.
(3) The revalidation of an IR(As), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for the revalidation of a class or
type rating.
(b) An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a type rating
shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved.
SUBPART I
ADDITIONAL RATINGS
FCL.800 Aerobatic rating
(a) Holders of a pilot licence for aeroplanes, TMG or sailplanes shall only undertake aerobatic flights when they hold the
appropriate rating.
(b) Applicants for an aerobatic rating shall have completed:
(1) at least 40 hours of flight time or, in the case of sailplanes, 120 launches as PIC in the appropriate aircraft
category, completed after the issue of the licence;
(2) a training course at an ATO, including:
(i) theoretical knowledge instruction appropriate for the rating;
(ii) at least 5 hours or 20 flights of aerobatic instruction in the appropriate aircraft category.
(c) The privileges of the aerobatic rating shall be limited to the aircraft category in which the flight instruction was
completed. The privileges will be extended to another category of aircraft if the pilot holds a licence for that aircraft
category and has successfully completed at least 3 dual training flights covering the full aerobatic training syllabus in
that category of aircraft.
FCL.805 Sailplane towing and banner towing ratings
(a) Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly aeroplanes or TMGs shall only tow sailplanes or banners when they
hold the appropriate sailplane towing or banner towing rating.
(b) Applicants for a sailplane towing rating shall have completed:
(1) at least 30 hours of flight time as PIC and 60 take-offs and landings in aeroplanes, if the activity is to be carried
out in aeroplanes, or in TMGs, if the activity is to be carried out in TMGs, completed after the issue of the licence;
(2) a training course at an ATO including:
(i) theoretical knowledge instruction on towing operations and procedures;
(ii) at least 10 instruction flights towing a sailplane, including at least 5 dual instruction flights; and
(iii) except for holders of an LAPL(S) or an SPL, 5 familiarisation flights in a sailplane which is launched by an
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(c) Applicants for a banner towing rating shall have completed:
(1) at least 100 hours of flight time and 200 take-offs and landings as PIC on aeroplanes or TMG, after the issue of
the licence. At least 30 of these hours shall be in aeroplanes, if the activity is to be carried out in aeroplanes, or in
TMG, if the activity is to be carried out in TMGs;
(2) a training course at an ATO including:
(i) theoretical knowledge instruction on towing operations and procedures;
(ii) at least 10 instruction flights towing a banner, including at least 5 dual flights.
(d) The privileges of the sailplane and banner towing ratings shall be limited to aeroplanes or TMG, depending on which
aircraft the flight instruction was completed. The privileges will be extended if the pilot holds a licence for aeroplanes
or TMG and has successfully completed at least 3 dual training flights covering the full towing training syllabus in
either aircraft, as relevant.
(e) In order to exercise the privileges of the sailplane or banner towing ratings, the holder of the rating shall have
completed a minimum of 5 tows during the last 24 months.
(f) When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (e), before resuming the exercise of his/her privileges, the
pilot shall complete the missing tows with or under the supervision of an instructor.
FCL.810 Night rating
(a) Aeroplanes, TMGs, airships.
(1) If the privileges of an LAPL or a PPL for aeroplanes, TMGs or airships are to be exercised in VFR conditions at
night, applicants shall have completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall comprise:
(i) theoretical knowledge instruction;
(ii) at least 5 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category at night, including at least 3 hours of dual
instruction, including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation with at least one dual cross-country flight of
at least 50 km and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full-stop landings.
(2) Before completing the training at night, LAPL holders shall have completed the basic instrument flight training
required for the issue of the PPL.
(3) When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane (land) and a TMG class rating, they may complete the
requirements in (1) above in either class or both classes.
(b) Helicopters. If the privileges of a PPL for helicopters are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, the applicant shall
have:
(1) completed at least 100 hours of flight time as pilot in helicopters after the issue of the licence, including at least
60 hours as PIC on helicopters and 20 hours of cross-country flight;
(2) completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall be completed within a period of 6 months and comprise:
(i) 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction;
(ii) 10 hours of helicopter dual instrument instruction time; and
(iii) 5 hours of flight time at night, including at least 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour of
cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.

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(3) An applicant who holds or has held an IR in an aeroplane or TMG, shall be credited with 5 hours towards the
requirement in (2)(ii) above.
(c) Balloons. If the privileges of an LAPL for balloons or a BPL are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, applicants
shall complete at least 2 instruction flights at night of at least 1 hour each.
FCL.815 Mountain rating
(a) Privileges. The privileges of the holder of a mountain rating are to conduct flights with aeroplanes or TMG to and
from surfaces designated as requiring such a rating by the appropriate authorities designated by the Member States.
The initial mountain rating may be obtained either on:
(1) wheels, to grant the privilege to fly to and from such surfaces when they are not covered by snow; or
(2) skis, to grant the privilege to fly to and from such surfaces when they are covered by snow.
(3) The privileges of the initial rating may be extended to either wheel or ski privileges when the pilot has undertaken
an appropriate additional familiarisation course, including theoretical knowledge instruction and flight training,
with a mountain flight instructor.
(b) Training course. Applicants for a mountain rating shall have completed, within a period of 24 months, a course of
theoretical knowledge instruction and flight training at an ATO. The content of the course shall be appropriate to the
privileges sought.
(c) Skill test. After the completion of the training, the applicant shall pass a skill test with an FE qualified for this purpose.
The skill test shall contain:
(1) a verbal examination of theoretical knowledge;
(2) 6 landings on at least 2 different surfaces designated as requiring a mountain rating other than the surface of
departure.
(d) Validity. A mountain rating shall be valid for a period of 24 months.
(e) Revalidation. For revalidation of a mountain rating, the applicant shall:
(1) have completed at least 6 mountain landings in the past 24 months; or
(2) pass a proficiency check. The proficiency check shall comply with the requirements in (c).
(f) Renewal. If the rating has lapsed, the applicant shall comply with the requirement in (e)(2).
FCL.820 Flight test rating
(a) Holders of a pilot licence for aeroplanes or helicopters shall only act as PIC in category 1 or 2 flight tests, as defined
in Part-21, when they hold a flight test rating.
(b) The obligation to hold a flight test rating established in (a) shall only apply to flight tests conducted on:
(1) helicopters certificated or to be certificated in accordance with the standards of CS-27 or CS-29 or equivalent
airworthiness codes; or
(2) aeroplanes certificated or to be certificated in accordance with:
(i) the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or
(ii) the standards of CS-23 or equivalent airworthiness codes, except for aeroplanes with an maximum take-off
mass of less than 2 000 kg.

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(c) The privileges of the holder of a flight test rating are to, within the relevant aircraft category:
(1) in the case of a category 1 flight test rating, conduct all categories of flight tests, as defined in Part-21, either as
PIC or co-pilot;
(2) in the case of a category 2 flight test rating:
(i) conduct category 1 flight tests, as defined in Part-21:
— as a co-pilot, or
— as PIC, in the case of aeroplanes referred to in (b)(2)(ii), except for those within the commuter category or
having a design diving speed above 0,6 mach or a maximum ceiling above 25 000 feet;
(ii) conduct all other categories of flight tests, as defined in Part-21, either as PIC or co-pilot;
(3) in addition, for both category 1 or 2 flight test ratings, to conduct flights specifically related to the activity of
design and production organisations, within the scope of their privileges, when the requirements of Subpart H
may not be complied with.
(d) Applicants for the first issue of a flight test rating shall:
(1) hold at least a CPL and an IR in the appropriate aircraft category;
(2) have completed at least 1 000 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category, of which at least 400
hours as PIC;
(3) have completed a training course at an ATO appropriate to the intended aircraft and category of flights. The
training shall cover at least the following subjects:
— Performance,
— Stability and control/Handling qualities,
— Systems,
— Test management,
— Risk/Safety management.
(e) The privileges of holders of a flight test rating may be extended to another category of flight test and another category
of aircraft when they have completed an additional course of training at an ATO.
SUBPART J
INSTRUCTORS
SECTION 1
Common requirements
FCL.900 Instructor certificates
(a) General. A person shall only carry out:
(1) flight instruction in aircraft when he/she holds:
(i) a pilot licence issued or accepted in accordance with this Regulation;
(ii) an instructor certificate appropriate to the instruction given, issued in accordance with this Subpart;
(2) synthetic flight instruction or MCC instruction when he/she holds an instructor certificate appropriate to the
instruction given, issued in accordance with this Subpart.

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(b) Special conditions:
(1) In the case of introduction of new aircraft in the Member States or in an operator’s fleet, when compliance with
the requirements established in this Subpart is not possible, the competent authority may issue a specific
certificate giving privileges for flight instruction. Such a certificate shall be limited to the instruction flights
necessary for the introduction of the new type of aircraft and its validity shall not, in any case, exceed 1 year.
(2) Holders of a certificate issued in accordance with (b)(1) who wish to apply for the issue of an instructor certificate
shall comply with the prerequisites and revalidation requirements established for that category of instructor.
Notwithstanding FCL.905.TRI(b), a TRI certificate issued in accordance with this (sub)paragraph will include the
privilege to instruct for the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate for the relevant type.
(c) Instruction outside the territory of the Member States:
(1) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), in the case of flight instruction provided in an ATO located outside the territory of
the Member States, the competent authority may issue an instructor certificate to an applicant holding a pilot
licence issued by a third country in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention, provided that the
applicant:
(i) holds at least an equivalent licence, rating, or certificate to the one for which they are authorised to instruct
and in any case at least a CPL;
(ii) complies with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of the relevant instructor certificate;
(iii) demonstrates to the competent authority an adequate level of knowledge of European aviation safety rules to
be able to exercise instructional privileges in accordance with this Part.
(2) The certificate shall be limited to providing flight instruction:
(i) in ATOs located outside the territory of the Member States;
(ii) to student pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which flight instruction is given.
FCL.915 General prerequisites and requirements for instructors
(a) General. An applicant for an instructor certificate shall be at least 18 years of age.
(b) Additional requirements for instructors providing flight instruction in aircraft. An applicant for or the holder of an
instructor certificate with privileges to conduct flight instruction in an aircraft shall:
(1) hold at least the licence and, where relevant, the rating for which flight instruction is to be given;
(2) except in the case of the flight test instructor, have:
(i) completed at least 15 hours of flight as a pilot on the class or type of aircraft on which flight instruction is to
be given, of which a maximum of 7 hours may be in an FSTD representing the class or type of aircraft, if
applicable; or
(ii) passed an assessment of competence for the relevant category of instructor on that class or type of aircraft;
(3) be entitled to act as PIC on the aircraft during such flight instruction.
(c) Credit towards further ratings and for the purpose of revalidation:
(1) Applicants for further instructor certificates may be credited with the teaching and learning skills already demon
strated for the instructor certificate held.
(2) Hours flown as an examiner during skill tests or proficiency checks shall be credited in full towards revalidation
requirements for all instructor certificates held.

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FCL.920 Instructor competencies and assessment
All instructors shall be trained to achieve the following competences:
— Prepare resources,
— Create a climate conducive to learning,
— Present knowledge,
— Integrate Threat and Error Management (TEM) and crew resource management,
— Manage time to achieve training objectives,
— Facilitate learning,
— Assess trainee performance,
— Monitor and review progress,
— Evaluate training sessions,
— Report outcome.
FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL
(a) Instructors conducting training for the MPL shall:
(1) have successfully completed an MPL instructor training course at an ATO; and
(2) additionally, for the basic, intermediate and advanced phases of the MPL integrated training course:
(i) be experienced in multi-pilot operations; and
(ii) have completed initial crew resource management training with a commercial air transport operator approved
in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements.
(b) MPL instructors training course
(1) The MPL instructor training course shall comprise at least 14 hours of training.
Upon completion of the training course, the applicant shall undertake an assessment of instructor competencies
and of knowledge of the competency-based approach to training.
(2) The assessment shall consist of a practical demonstration of flight instruction in the appropriate phase of the MPL
training course. This assessment shall be conducted by an examiner qualified in accordance with Subpart K.
(3) Upon successful completion of the MPL training course, the ATO shall issue an MPL instructor qualification
certificate to the applicant.
(c) In order to maintain the privileges, the instructor shall have, within the preceding 12 months, conducted within an
MPL training course:
(1) 1 simulator session of at least 3 hours; or
(2) 1 air exercise of at least 1 hour comprising at least 2 take-offs and landings.
(d) If the instructor has not fulfilled the requirements of (c), before exercising the privileges to conduct flight instruction
for the MPL he/she shall:
(1) receive refresher training at an ATO to reach the level of competence necessary to pass the assessment of
instructor competencies; and
(2) pass the assessment of instructor competencies as set out in (b)(2).

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FCL.930 Training course
Applicants for an instructor certificate shall have completed a course of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at an
ATO. In addition to the specific elements prescribed in this Part for each category of instructor, the course shall contain
the elements required in FCL.920.
FCL.935 Assessment of competence
(a) Except for the multi-crew cooperation instructor (MCCI), the synthetic training instructor (STI), the mountain rating
instructor (MI) and the flight test instructor (FTI), an applicant for an instructor certificate shall pass an assessment of
competence in the appropriate aircraft category to demonstrate to an examiner qualified in accordance with Subpart K
the ability to instruct a student pilot to the level required for the issue of the relevant licence, rating or certificate.
(b) This assessment shall include:
(1) the demonstration of the competencies described in FCL.920, during pre-flight, post-flight and theoretical
knowledge instruction;
(2) oral theoretical examinations on the ground, pre-flight and post-flight briefings and in-flight demonstrations in the
appropriate aircraft class, type or FSTD;
(3) exercises adequate to evaluate the instructor’s competencies.
(c) The assessment shall be performed on the same class or type of aircraft or FSTD used for the flight instruction.
(d) When an assessment of competence is required for revalidation of an instructor certificate, an applicant who fails to
achieve a pass in the assessment before the expiry date of an instructor certificate shall not exercise the privileges of
that certificate until the assessment has successfully been completed.
FCL.940 Validity of instructor certificates
With the exception of the MI, and without prejudice to FCL.900(b)(1), instructor certificates shall be valid for a period of
3 years.
SECTION 2
Specific requirements for the flight instructor — FI
FCL.905.FI FI — Privileges and conditions
The privileges of an FI are to conduct flight instruction for the issue, revalidation or renewal of:
(a) a PPL, SPL, BPL and LAPL in the appropriate aircraft category;
(b) class and type ratings for single-pilot, single-engine aircraft, except for single-pilot high performance complex aero
planes; class and group extensions for balloons and class extensions for sailplanes;
(c) type ratings for single or multi-pilot airship;
(d) a CPL in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that the FI has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a
pilot on that aircraft category, including at least 200 hours of flight instruction;
(e) the night rating, provided that the FI:
(1) is qualified to fly at night in the appropriate aircraft category;
(2) has demonstrated the ability to instruct at night to an FI qualified in accordance with (i) below; and
(3) complies with the night experience requirement of FCL.060(b)(2);
(f) a towing or aerobatic rating, provided that such privileges are held and the FI has demonstrated the ability to instruct
for that rating to an FI qualified in accordance with (i) below;

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(g) an IR in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that the FI has:
(1) at least 200 hours of flight time under IFR, of which up to 50 hours may be instrument ground time in an FFS,
an FTD 2/3 or FNPT II;
(2) completed as a student pilot the IRI training course and has passed an assessment of competence for the IRI
certificate; and
(3) in addition:
(i) for multi-engine aeroplanes, met the requirements for the issue of a CRI certificate;
(ii) for multi-engine helicopters, met the requirements for the issue of a TRI certificate;
(h) single-pilot multi-engine class or type ratings, except for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, provided
that the FI meets:
(1) in the case of aeroplanes, the prerequisites for the CRI training course established in FCL.915.CRI(a) and the
requirements of FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;
(2) in the case of helicopters, the requirements established in FCL.910.TRI(c)(1) and the prerequisites for the TRI(H)
training course established in FCL.915.TRI(b)(2);
(i) an FI, IRI, CRI, STI or MI certificate provided that the FI has:
(1) completed at least:
(i) in the case of an FI(S), at least 50 hours or 150 launches of flight instruction on sailplanes;
(ii) in the case of an FI(B), at least 50 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction on balloons;
(iii) in all other cases, 500 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category;
(2) passed an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in the appropriate aircraft category to demon
strate to a Flight Instructor Examiner (FIE) the ability to instruct for the FI certificate;
(j) an MPL, provided that the FI:
(1) for the core flying phase of the training, has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes,
including at least 200 hours of flight instruction;
(2) for the basic phase of the training:
(i) holds a multi-engine aeroplane IR and the privilege to instruct for an IR; and
(ii) has at least 1 500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations;
(3) in the case of an FI already qualified to instruct on ATP(A) or CPL(A)/IR integrated courses, the requirement of
(2)(ii) may be replaced by the completion of a structured course of training consisting of:
(i) MCC qualification;
(ii) observing 5 sessions of flight instruction in Phase 3 of an MPL course;
(iii) observing 5 sessions of flight instruction in Phase 4 of an MPL course;
(iv) observing 5 operator recurrent line oriented flight training sessions;
(v) the content of the MCCI instructor course.
In this case, the FI shall conduct its first 5 instructor sessions under the supervision of a TRI(A), MCCI(A) or
SFI(A) qualified for MPL flight instruction.

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FCL.910.FI FI — Restricted privileges
(a) An FI shall have his/her privileges limited to conducting flight instruction under the supervision of an FI for the same
category of aircraft nominated by the ATO for this purpose, in the following cases:
(1) for the issue of the PPL, SPL, BPL and LAPL;
(2) in all integrated courses at PPL level, in case of aeroplanes and helicopters;
(3) for class and type ratings for single-pilot, single-engine aircraft, class and group extensions in the case of balloons
and class extensions in the case of sailplanes;
(4) for the night, towing or aerobatic ratings.
(b) While conducting training under supervision, in accordance with (a), the FI shall not have the privilege to authorise
student pilots to conduct first solo flights and first solo cross-country flights.
(c) The limitations in (a) and (b) shall be removed from the FI certificate when the FI has completed at least:
(1) for the FI(A), 100 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or TMGs and, in addition has supervised at least 25
student solo flights;
(2) for the FI(H) 100 hours of flight instruction in helicopters and, in addition has supervised at least 25 student solo
flight air exercises;
(3) for the FI(As), FI(S) and FI(B), 15 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction covering the full training syllabus for
the issue of a PPL(As), SPL or BPL in the appropriate aircraft category.
FCL.915.FI FI — Prerequisites
An applicant for an FI certificate shall:
(a) in the case of the FI(A) and FI(H):
(1) have received at least 10 hours of instrument flight instruction on the appropriate aircraft category, of which not
more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FSTD;
(2) have completed 20 hours of VFR cross-country flight on the appropriate aircraft category as PIC; and
(b) additionally, for the FI(A):
(1) hold at least a CPL(A); or
(2) hold at least a PPL(A) and have:
(i) met the requirements for CPL theoretical knowledge, except for an FI(A) providing training for the LAPL(A)
only; and
(ii) completed at least 200 hours of flight time on aeroplanes or TMGs, of which 150 hours as PIC;
(3) have completed at least 30 hours on single-engine piston powered aeroplanes of which at least 5 hours shall have
been completed during the 6 months preceding the pre-entry flight test set out in FCL.930.FI(a);
(4) have completed a VFR cross-country flight as PIC, including a flight of at least 540 km (300 NM) in the course of
which full stop landings at 2 different aerodromes shall be made;
(c) additionally, for the FI(H), have completed 250 hours total flight time as pilot on helicopters of which:
(1) at least 100 hours shall be as PIC, if the applicant holds at least a CPL(H); or
(2) at least 200 hours as PIC, if the applicant holds at least a PPL(H) and has met the requirements for CPL theoretical
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(d) for an FI(As), have completed 500 hours of flight time on airships as PIC, of which 400 hours shall be as PIC holding
a CPL(As);
(e) for an FI(S), have completed 100 hours of flight time and 200 launches as PIC on sailplanes. Additionally, where the
applicant wishes to give flight instruction on TMGs, he/she shall have completed 30 hours of flight time as PIC on
TMGs and an additional assessment of competence on a TMG in accordance with FCL.935 with an FI qualified in
accordance with FCL.905.FI(j);
(f) for an FI(B), have completed 75 hours of balloon flight time as PIC, of which at least 15 hours have to be in the class
for which flight instruction will be given.
FCL.930.FI FI — Training course
(a) Applicants for the FI certificate shall have passed a specific pre-entry flight test with an FI qualified in accordance with
FCL.905.FI(i) within the 6 months preceding the start of the course, to assess their ability to undertake the course.
This pre-entry flight test shall be based on the proficiency check for class and type ratings as set out in Appendix 9 to
this Part.
(b) The FI training course shall include:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning;
(2) (i) in the case of an FI(A), (H) and (As), at least 100 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction, including
progress tests;
(ii) in the case of an FI(B) or FI(S), at least 30 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction, including progress tests;
(3) (i) in the case of an FI(A) and (H), at least 30 hours of flight instruction, of which 25 hours shall be dual flight
instruction, of which 5 hours may be conducted in an FFS, an FNPT I or II or an FTD 2/3;
(ii) in the case of an FI(As), at least 20 hours of flight instruction, of which 15 hours shall be dual flight
instruction;
(iii) in the case of an FI(S), at least 6 hours or 20 take-offs of flight instruction;
(iv) in the case of an FI(S) providing training on TMGs, at least 6 hours of dual flight instruction on TMGs;
(v) in the case of an FI(B), at least 3 hours including 3 take-offs of flight instruction.
When applying for an FI certificate in another category of aircraft, pilots holding or having held:
(1) an FI(A), (H) or (As) shall be credited with 55 hours towards the requirement in (b)(2)(i) or with 18 hours
towards the requirements in (b)(2)(ii).
FCL.940.FI FI — Revalidation and renewal
(a) For revalidation of an FI certificate, the holder shall fulfil 2 of the following 3 requirements:
(1) complete:
(i) in the case of an FI(A) and (H), at least 50 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category
during the period of validity of the certificate as, FI, TRI, CRI, IRI, MI or examiner. If the privileges to instruct
for the IR are to be revalidated, 10 of these hours shall be flight instruction for an IR and shall have been
completed within the last 12 months preceding the expiry date of the FI certificate;
(ii) in the case of an FI(As), at least 20 hours of flight instruction in airships as FI, IRI or as examiner during the
period of validity of the certificate. If the privileges to instruct for the IR are to be revalidated, 10 of these
hours shall be flight instruction for an IR and shall have been completed within the last 12 months preceding
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(iii) in the case of an FI(S), at least 30 hours or 60 take-offs of flight instruction in sailplanes, powered sailplanes
or TMG as, FI or as examiner during the period of validity of the certificate;
(iv) in the case of an FI(B), at least 6 hours of flight instruction in balloons as, FI or as examiner during the period
of validity of the certificate;
(2) attend an instructor refresher seminar, within the validity period of the FI certificate;
(3) pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935, within the 12 months preceding the expiry date
of the FI certificate.
(b) For the at least each alternate subsequent revalidation in the case of FI(A) or FI(H), or each third revalidation, in the
case of FI(As), (S) and (B), the holder shall have to pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.
(c) Renewal. If the FI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall, within a period of 12 months before renewal:
(1) attend an instructor refresher seminar;
(2) pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.
SECTION 4
Specific requirements for the type rating instructor — TRI
FCL.905.TRI TRI — Privileges and conditions
The privileges of a TRI are to instruct for:
(a) the revalidation and renewal of IRs, provided the TRI holds a valid IR;
(b) the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate, provided that the holder has 3 years of experience as a TRI; and
(c) in the case of the TRI for single-pilot aeroplanes:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the
applicant seeks privileges to operate in single-pilot operations.
The privileges of the TRI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot high performance complex
aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that the TRI:
(i) holds an MCCI certificate; or
(ii) holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(2) the MPL course on the basic phase, provided that he/she has the privileges extended to multi-pilot operations and
holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;
(d) in the case of the TRI for multi-pilot aeroplanes:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:
(i) multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(ii) single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in multi-pilot
operations;
(2) MCC training;
(3) the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basic phase, they hold or
have held an FI(A) or IRI(A) certificate;

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(e) in the case of the TRI for helicopters:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;
(2) MCC training, provided he/she holds a multi-pilot helicopter type rating;
(3) the extension of the single-engine IR(H) to multi-engine IR(H);
(f) in the case of the TRI for powered-lift aircraft:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of powered-lift type ratings;
(2) MCC training.
FCL.910.TRI TRI — Restricted privileges
(a) General. If the TRI training is carried out in an FFS only, the privileges of the TRI shall be restricted to training in the
FFS.
In this case, the TRI may conduct line flying under supervision, provided that the TRI training course has included
additional training for this purpose.
(b) TRI for aeroplanes and for powered-lift aircraft — TRI(A) and TRI(PL). The privileges of a TRI are restricted to the
type of aeroplane or powered-lift aircraft in which the training and the assessment of competence was taken. The
privileges of the TRI shall be extended to further types when the TRI has:
(1) completed within the 12 months preceding the application, at least 15 route sectors, including take-offs and
landings on the applicable aircraft type, of which 7 sectors may be completed in an FFS;
(2) completed the technical training and flight instruction parts of the relevant TRI course;
(3) passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in order to demonstrate
to an FIE or a TRE qualified in accordance with Subpart K his/her ability to instruct a pilot to the level required
for the issue of a type rating, including pre-flight, post-flight and theoretical knowledge instruction.
(c) TRI for helicopters — TRI(H).
(1) The privileges of a TRI(H) are restricted to the type of helicopter in which the skill test for the issue of the TRI
certificate was taken. The privileges of the TRI shall be extended to further types when the TRI has:
(i) completed the appropriate type technical part of the TRI course on the applicable type of helicopter or an
FSTD representing that type;
(ii) conducted at least 2 hours of flight instruction on the applicable type, under the supervision of an adequately
qualified TRI(H); and
(iii) passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in order to
demonstrate to an FIE or TRE qualified in accordance with Subpart K his/her ability to instruct a pilot to
the level required for the issue of a type rating, including pre-flight, post-flight and theoretical knowledge
instruction.
(2) Before the privileges of a TRI(H) are extended from single-pilot to multi-pilot privileges on the same type of
helicopters, the holder shall have at least 100 hours in multi-pilot operations on this type.
(d) Notwithstanding the paragraphs above, holders of a TRI certificate who have been issued with a type rating in
accordance with FCL.725(e) shall be entitled to have their TRI privileges extended to that new type of aircraft.
FCL.915.TRI TRI — Prerequisites
An applicant for a TRI certificate shall:
(a) hold a CPL, MPL or ATPL pilot licence on the applicable aircraft category;

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(b) for a TRI(MPA) certificate:
(1) have completed 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes; and
(2) have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of application, 30 route sectors, including take-offs and
landings, as PIC or co-pilot on the applicable aeroplane type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS
representing that type;
(c) for a TRI(SPA) certificate:
(1) have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of application, 30 route sectors, including take-offs and
landings, as PIC on the applicable aeroplane type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing
that type; and
(2) (i) have competed at least 500 hours flight time as pilot on aeroplanes, including 30 hours as PIC on the
applicable type of aeroplane; or
(ii) hold or have held an FI certificate for multi-engine aeroplanes with IR(A) privileges;
(d) for TRI(H):
(1) for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot single-engine helicopters, have completed 250 hours as a pilot on
helicopters;
(2) for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, have completed 500 hours as pilot of helicopters,
including 100 hours as PIC on single-pilot multi-engine helicopters;
(3) for a TRI(H) certificate for multi-pilot helicopters, have completed 1 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on
helicopters, including:
(i) 350 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or
(ii) for applicants already holding a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, 100 hours as pilot
of that type in multi-pilot operations.
(4) Holders of an FI(H) certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirements of (1) and (2) in the relevant single-
pilot helicopter;
(e) for TRI(PL):
(1) have completed 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes, powered-lift, or multi-pilot heli
copters; and
(2) have completed, within the 12 months preceding the application, 30 route sectors, including take-offs and
landings, as PIC or co-pilot on the applicable powered-lift type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an
FFS representing that type.
FCL.930.TRI TRI — Training course
(a) The TRI training course shall include, at least:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning;
(2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation of lesson plans and the
development of classroom/simulator instructional skills;
(3) 5 hours of flight instruction on the appropriate aircraft or a simulator representing that aircraft for single-pilot
aircraft and 10 hours for multi-pilot aircraft or a simulator representing that aircraft.
(b) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement of (a)(1).
(c) An applicant for a TRI certificate who holds an SFI certificate for the relevant type shall be fully credited towards the
requirements of this paragraph for the issue of a TRI certificate restricted to flight instruction in simulators.

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FCL.935.TRI TRI — Assessment of competence
If the TRI assessment of competence is conducted in an FFS, the TRI certificate shall be restricted to flight instruction in
FFSs.
The restriction shall be lifted when the TRI has passed the assessment of competence on an aircraft.
FCL.940.TRI TRI — Revalidation and renewal
(a) Revalidation
(1) Aeroplanes. For revalidation of a TRI(A) certificate, the applicant shall, within the last 12 months preceding the
expiry date of the certificate, fulfil one of the following 3 requirements:
(i) conduct one of the following parts of a complete type rating training course: simulator session of at least 3
hours or one air exercise of at least 1 hour comprising a minimum of 2 take-offs and landings;
(ii) receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO;
(iii) pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.
(2) Helicopters and powered lift. For revalidation of a TRI (H) or TRI(PL) certificate, the applicant shall, within the
validity period of the TRI certificate, fulfil 2 of the following 3 requirements:
(i) complete 50 hours of flight instruction on each of the types of aircraft for which instructional privileges are
held or in an FSTD representing those types, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12 months
preceding the expiry date of the TRI certificate.
In the case of TRI(PL), these hours of flight instruction shall be flown as a TRI or type rating examiner (TRE),
or SFI or synthetic flight examiner (SFE). In the case of TRI(H), time flown as FI, instrument rating instructor
(IRI), synthetic training instructor (STI) or as any kind of examiner shall also be relevant for this purpose;
(ii) receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO;
(iii) pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.
(3) For at least each alternate revalidation of a TRI certificate, the holder shall have to pass the assessment of
competence in accordance with FCL.935.
(4) If a person holds a TRI certificate on more than one type of aircraft within the same category, the assessment of
competence taken on one of those types shall revalidate the TRI certificate for the other types held within the
same category of aircraft.
(5) Specific requirements for revalidation of a TRI(H). A TRI(H) holding an FI(H) certificate on the relevant type shall
have full credit towards the requirements in (a) above. In this case, the TRI(H) certificate will be valid until the
expiry date of the FI(H) certificate.
(b) Renewal
(1) Aeroplanes. If the TRI (A) certificate has lapsed the applicant shall have:
(i) completed within the last 12 months preceding the application at least 30 route sectors, to include take-offs
and landings on the applicable aeroplane type, of which not more than 15 sectors may be completed in a
flight simulator;
(ii) completed the relevant parts of a TRI course at an approved ATO;
(iii) conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction on the applicable type of
aeroplane under the supervision of a TRI(A).
(2) Helicopters and powered lift. If the TRI (H) or TRI(PL) certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall, within a period of
12 months before renewal:
(i) receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO, which should cover the relevant elements of the TRI
training course; and
(ii) pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in each of the types of aircraft in which
renewal of the instructional privileges is sought.

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SECTION 5
Specific requirements for the class rating instructor — CRI
FCL.905.CRI CRI — Privileges and conditions
(a) The privileges of a CRI are to instruct for:
(1) the issue, revalidation or renewal of a class or type rating for non-complex non-high performance single-pilot
aeroplanes, when the privileges sought by the applicant are to fly in single-pilot operations;
(2) a towing or aerobatic rating for the aeroplane category, provided the CRI holds the relevant rating and has
demonstrated the ability to instruct for that rating to an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i).
(b) The privileges of a CRI are restricted to the class or type of aeroplane in which the instructor assessment of
competence was taken. The privileges of the CRI shall be extended to further classes or types when the CRI has
completed, within the last 12 months:
(1) 15 hours flight time as PIC on aeroplanes of the applicable class or type of aeroplane;
(2) one training flight from the right hand seat under the supervision of another CRI or FI qualified for that class or
type occupying the other pilot’s seat.
FCL.915.CRI CRI — Prerequisites
An applicant for a CRI certificate shall have completed at least:
(a) for multi-engine aeroplanes:
(1) 500 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;
(2) 30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane;
(b) for single-engine aeroplanes:
(1) 300 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;
(2) 30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane.
FCL.930.CRI CRI — Training course
(a) The training course for the CRI shall include, at least:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction;
(2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation of lesson plans and the
development of classroom/simulator instructional skills;
(3) 5 hours of flight instruction on multi-engine aeroplanes, or 3 hours of flight instruction on single-engine aero
planes, given by an FI(A) qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i).
(b) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement of (a)(1).
FCL.940.CRI CRI — Revalidation and renewal
(a) For revalidation of a CRI certificate the applicant shall, within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the CRI
certificate:
(1) conduct at least 10 hours of flight instruction in the role of a CRI. If the applicant has CRI privileges on both
single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes, the 10 hours of flight instruction shall be equally divided between
single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes; or
(2) receive refresher training as a CRI at an ATO; or
(3) pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 for multi-engine or single-engine aeroplanes, as
relevant.

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(b) For at least each alternate revalidation of a CRI certificate, the holder shall have to comply with the requirement of
(a)(3).
(c) Renewal. If the CRI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall, within a period of 12 months before renewal:
(1) receive refresher training as a CRI at an ATO;
(2) pass the assessment of competence established in FCL.935.
SECTION 6
Specific requirements for the instrument rating instructor — IRI
FCL.905.IRI IRI — Privileges and conditions
(a) The privileges of an IRI are to instruct for the issue, revalidation and renewal of an IR on the appropriate aircraft
category.
(b) Specific requirements for the MPL course. To instruct for the basic phase of training on an MPL course, the IRI(A)
shall:
(1) hold an IR for multi-engine aeroplanes; and
(2) have completed at least 1 500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations.
(3) In the case of IRI already qualified to instruct on ATP(A) or CPL(A)/IR integrated courses, the requirement of (b)(2)
may be replaced by the completion of the course provided for in paragraph FCL.905.FI(j)(3).
FCL.915.IRI IRI — Prerequisites
An applicant for an IRI certificate shall:
(a) for an IRI(A):
(1) have completed at least 800 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 400 hours shall be in aeroplanes;
and
(2) in the case of applicants of an IRI(A) for multi-engine aeroplanes, meet the requirements of paragraph
FCL.915.CRI(a);
(b) for an IRI(H):
(1) have completed at least 500 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 250 hours shall be instrument flight
time in helicopters; and
(2) in the case of applicants for an IR(H) for multi-pilot helicopters, meet the requirements of FCL.905.FI(g)(3)(ii);
(c) for an IRI(As), have completed at least 300 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 100 hours shall be
instrument flight time in airships.
FCL.930.IRI IRI — Training course
(a) The training course for the IRI shall include, at least:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction;
(2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of instrument theoretical knowledge, the preparation of lesson
plans and the development of classroom instructional skills;
(3) (i) for the IRI(A), at least 10 hours of flight instruction on an aeroplane, FFS, FTD 2/3 or FPNT II. In the case of
applicants holding an FI(A) certificate, these hours are reduced to 5;
(ii) for the IRI(H), at least 10 hours of flight instruction on a helicopter, FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III;
(iii) for the IRI(As), at least 10 hours of flight instruction on an airship, FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II.

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(b) Flight instruction shall be given by an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i).
(c) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement of (a)(1).
FCL.940.IRI IRI — Revalidation and renewal
For revalidation and renewal of an IRI certificate, the holder shall meet the requirements for revalidation and renewal of
an FI certificate, in accordance with FCL.940.FI.
SECTION 7
Specific requirements for the synthetic flight instructor — SFI
FCL.905.SFI SFI — Privileges and conditions
The privileges of an SFI are to carry out synthetic flight instruction, within the relevant aircraft category, for:
(a) the issue, revalidation and renewal of an IR, provided that he/she holds or has held an IR in the relevant aircraft
category and has completed an IRI training course; and
(b) in the case of SFI for single-pilot aeroplanes:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, when the
applicant seeks privileges to operate in single-pilot operations.
The privileges of the SFI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot high performance complex
aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that he/she:
(i) holds an MCCI certificate; or
(ii) holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes; and
(2) provided that the privileges of the SFI(SPA) have been extended to multi-pilot operations in accordance with (1):
(i) MCC;
(ii) the MPL course on the basic phase;
(c) in the case of SFI for multi-pilot aeroplanes:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:
(i) multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(ii) single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in multi-pilot
operations;
(2) MCC;
(3) the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basic phase, he/she holds
or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;
(d) in the case of SFI for helicopters:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;
(2) MCC training, when the TRI has privileges to instruct for multi-pilot helicopters.
FCL.910.SFI SFI — Restricted privileges
The privileges of the SFI shall be restricted to the FTD 2/3 or FFS of the aircraft type in which the SFI training course was
taken.
The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of the same category of aircraft when the
holder has:
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(b) conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the duties of an SFI on the
applicable type under the supervision and to the satisfaction of a TRE qualified for this purpose.
FCL.915.SFI SFI — Prerequisites
An applicant for an SFI certificate shall:
(a) hold or have held a CPL, MPL or ATPL in the appropriate aircraft category;
(b) have completed the proficiency check for the issue of the specific aircraft type rating in an FFS representing the
applicable type, within the 12 months preceding the application; and
(c) additionally, for an SFI(A) for multi-pilot aeroplanes or SFI(PL), have:
(1) at least 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift, as applicable;
(2) completed, as a pilot or as an observer, within the 12 months preceding the application, at least:
(i) 3 route sectors on the flight deck of the applicable aircraft type; or
(ii) 2 line-orientated flight training-based simulator sessions conducted by qualified flight crew on the flight deck
of the applicable type. These simulator sessions shall include 2 flights of at least 2 hours each between 2
different aerodromes, and the associated pre-flight planning and de-briefing;
(d) additionally, for an SFI(A) for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes:
(1) have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes;
(2) hold or have held a multi-engine IR(A) rating; and
(3) have met the requirements in (c)(2);
(e) additionally, for an SFI(H), have:
(1) completed, as a pilot or as an observer, at least 1 hour of flight time on the flight deck of the applicable type,
within the 12 months preceding the application; and
(2) in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, at least 1 000 hours of flying experience as a pilot on helicopters, including
at least 350 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;
(3) in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, completed 500 hours as pilot of helicopters, including 100
hours as PIC on single-pilot multi-engine helicopters;
(4) in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, completed 250 hours as a pilot on helicopters.
FCL.930.SFI SFI — Training course
(a) The training course for the SFI shall include:
(1) the FSTD content of the applicable type rating course;
(2) the content of the TRI training course.

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(b) An applicant for an SFI certificate who holds a TRI certificate for the relevant type shall be fully credited towards the
requirements of this paragraph.
FCL.940.SFI SFI — Revalidation and renewal
(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of an SFI certificate the applicant shall, within the validity period of the SFI certificate,
fulfil 2 of the following 3 requirements:
(1) complete 50 hours as an instructor or an examiner in FSTDs, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12
months preceding the expiry date of the SFI certificate;
(2) receive instructor refresher training as an SFI at an ATO;
(3) pass the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.
(b) Additionally, the applicant shall have completed, on an FFS, the proficiency checks for the issue of the specific aircraft
type ratings representing the types for which privileges are held.
(c) For at least each alternate revalidation of an SFI certificate, the holder shall have to comply with the requirement of
(a)(3).
(d) Renewal. If the SFI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall, within the 12 months preceding the application:
(1) complete the simulator content of the SFI training course;
(2) fulfil the requirements specified in (a)(2) and (3).
SECTION 8
Specific requirements for the multi-crew cooperation instructor — MCCI
FCL.905.MCCI MCCI — Privileges and conditions
(a) The privileges of an MCCI are to carry out flight instruction during:
(1) the practical part of MCC courses when not combined with type rating training; and
(2) in the case of MCCI(A), the basic phase of the MPL integrated training course, provided he/she holds or has held
an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate.
FCL.910.MCCI MCCI — Restricted privileges
The privileges of the holder of an MCCI certificate shall be restricted to the FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS in which the
MCCI training course was taken.
The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of aircraft when the holder has completed the
practical training of the MCCI course on that type of FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS.
FCL.915.MCCI MCCI — Prerequisites
An applicant for an MCCI certificate shall:
(a) hold or have held a CPL, MPL or ATPL in the appropriate aircraft category;
(b) have at least:
(1) in the case of aeroplanes, airships and powered-lift aircraft, 1 500 hours of flying experience as a pilot on multi-
pilot operations;
(2) in the case of helicopters, 1 000 hours of flying experience as a pilot in multi-crew operations, of which at least
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FCL.930.MCCI MCCI — Training course
(a) The training course for the MCCI shall include, at least:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction;
(2) technical training related to the type of FSTD where the applicant wishes to instruct;
(3) 3 hours of practical instruction, which may be flight instruction or MCC instruction on the relevant FNPT II/III
MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS, under the supervision of a TRI, SFI or MCCI nominated by the ATO for that purpose.
These hours of flight instruction under supervision shall include the assessment of the applicant’s competence as
described in FCL.920.
(b) Applicants holding or having held an FI, TRI, CRI, IRI or SFI certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement
of (a)(1).
FCL.940.MCCI MCCI — Revalidation and renewal
(a) For revalidation of an MCCI certificate the applicant shall have completed the requirements of FCL.930.MCCI(a)(3) on
the relevant type of FNPT II/III, FTD 2/3 or FFS, within the last 12 months of the validity period of the MCCI
certificate.
(b) Renewal. If the MCCI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall complete the requirements of FCL.930.MCCI(a)(2) and
(3) on the relevant type of FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS.
SECTION 9
Specific requirements for the synthetic training instructor — STI
FCL.905.STI STI — Privileges and conditions
(a) The privileges of an STI are to carry out synthetic flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category for:
(1) the issue of a licence;
(2) the issue, revalidation or renewal of an IR and a class or type rating for single-pilot aircraft, except for single-pilot
high performance complex aeroplanes.
(b) Additional privileges for the STI(A). The privileges of an STI(A) shall include synthetic flight instruction during the
core flying skills training of the MPL integrated training course.
FCL.910.STI STI — Restricted privileges
The privileges of an STI shall be restricted to the FNPT II/III, FTD 2/3 or FFS in which the STI training course was taken.
The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of aircraft when the holder has:
(a) completed the FFS content of the TRI course on the applicable type;
(b) passed the proficiency check for the specific aircraft type rating on an FFS of the applicable type, within the 12
months preceding the application;
(c) conducted, on a type rating course, at least one FSTD session related to the duties of an STI with a minimum duration
of 3 hours on the applicable type of aircraft, under the supervision of a flight instructor examiner (FIE).
FCL.915.STI STI — Prerequisites
An applicant for an STI certificate shall:
(a) hold, or have held within the 3 years prior to the application, a pilot licence and instructional privileges appropriate
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(b) have completed in an FNPT the relevant proficiency check for the class or type rating, within a period of 12 months
preceding the application.
An applicant for an STI(A) wishing to instruct on BITDs only, shall complete only the exercises appropriate for a skill
test for the issue of a PPL(A);
(c) additionally, for an STI(H), have completed at least 1 hour of flight time as an observer on the flight deck of the
applicable type of helicopter, within the 12 months preceding the application.
FCL.930.STI STI — Training course
(a) The training course for the STI shall comprise at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the duties of an STI in an
FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III, under the supervision of an FIE. These hours of flight instruction under supervision shall
include the assessment of the applicant’s competence as described in FCL.920.
Applicants for an STI(A) wishing to instruct on a BITD only, shall complete the flight instruction on a BITD.
(b) For applicants for an STI(H), the course shall also include the FFS content of the applicable TRI course.
FCL.940.STI Revalidation and renewal of the STI certificate
(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of an STI certificate the applicant shall have, within the last 12 months of the validity
period of the STI certificate:
(1) conducted at least 3 hours of flight instruction in an FFS or FNPT II/III or BITD, as part of a complete CPL, IR, PPL
or class or type rating course; and
(2) passed in the FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III on which flight instruction is routinely conducted, the applicable
sections of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part for the appropriate class or type of
aircraft.
For an STI(A) instructing on BITDs only, the proficiency check shall include only the exercises appropriate for a
skill test for the issue of a PPL(A).
(b) Renewal. If the STI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall:
(1) receive refresher training as an STI at an ATO;
(2) pass in the FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III on which flight instruction is routinely conducted, the applicable sections
of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part for the appropriate class or type of aircraft.
For an STI(A) instructing on BITDs only, the proficiency check shall include only the exercises appropriate for a
skill test for the issue of a PPL(A);
(3) conduct on a complete CPL, IR, PPL or class or type rating course, at least 3 hours of flight instruction under the
supervision of an FI, CRI(A), IRI or TRI(H) nominated by the ATO for this purpose. At least 1 hour of flight
instruction shall be supervised by an FIE(A).
SECTION 10
Mountain rating instructor — MI
FCL.905.MI MI — Privileges and conditions
The privileges of an MI are to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a mountain rating.
FCL.915.MI MI — Prerequisites
An applicant for an MI certificate shall:
(a) hold a, FI, CRI, or TRI certificate, with privileges for single-pilot aeroplanes;
(b) hold a mountain rating.

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FCL.930.MI MI — Training course
(a) The training course for the MI shall include the assessment of the applicant’s competence as described in FCL.920.
(b) Before attending the course, applicants shall have passed a pre-entry flight test with an MI holding an FI certificate to
assess their experience and ability to undertake the training course.
FCL.940.MI Validity of the MI certificate
The MI certificate is valid as long as the, FI, TRI or CRI certificate is valid.
SECTION 11
Specific requirements for the flight test instructor — FTI
FCL.905.FTI FTI — Privileges and conditions
(a) The privileges of a flight test instructor (FTI) are to instruct, within the appropriate aircraft category, for:
(1) the issue of category 1 or 2 flight test ratings, provided he/she holds the relevant category of flight test rating;
(2) the issue of an FTI certificate, within the relevant category of flight test rating, provided that the instructor has at
least 2 years of experience instructing for the issue of flight test ratings.
(b) The privileges of an FTI holding a category 1 flight test rating include the provision of flight instruction also in
relation to category 2 flight test ratings.
FCL.915.FTI FTI — Prerequisites
An applicant for an FTI certificate shall:
(a) hold a flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820;
(b) have completed at least 200 hours of category 1 or 2 flight tests.
FCL.930.FTI FTI — Training course
(a) The training course for the FTI shall include, at least:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning;
(2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation of lesson plans and the
development of classroom/simulator instructional skills;
(3) 5 hours of practical flight instruction under the supervision of an FTI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FTI(b).
These hours of flight instruction shall include the assessment of the applicant’s competence as described in
FCL.920.
(b) Crediting:
(1) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement of (a)(1).
(2) In addition, applicants holding or having held an FI or TRI certificate in the relevant aircraft category shall be fully
credited towards the requirements of (a)(2).
FCL.940.FTI FTI — Revalidation and renewal
(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of an FTI certificate, the applicant shall, within the validity period of the FTI certificate,
fulfil one of the following requirements:
(1) complete at least:
(i) 50 hours of flight tests, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of
the FTI certificate; and
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(2) receive refresher training as an FTI at an ATO. The refresher training shall be based on the practical flight
instruction element of the FTI training course, in accordance with FCL.930.FTI(a)(3), and include at least 1
instruction flight under the supervision of an FTI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FTI(b).
(b) Renewal. If the FTI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall receive refresher training as an FTI at an ATO. The
refresher training shall comply at least with the requirements of FCL.930.FTI(a)(3).
SUBPART K
EXAMINERS
SECTION 1
Common requirements
FCL.1000 Examiner certificates
(a) General. Holders of an examiner certificate shall:
(1) hold an equivalent licence, rating or certificate to the ones for which they are authorised to conduct skill tests,
proficiency checks or assessments of competence and the privilege to instruct for them;
(2) be qualified to act as PIC on the aircraft during a skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence when
conducted on the aircraft.
(b) Special conditions:
(1) In the case of introduction of new aircraft in the Member States or in an operator’s fleet, when compliance with
the requirements in this Subpart is not possible, the competent authority may issue a specific certificate giving
privileges for the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks. Such a certificate shall be limited to the skill tests
and proficiency checks necessary for the introduction of the new type of aircraft and its validity shall not, in any
case, exceed 1 year.
(2) Holders of a certificate issued in accordance with (b)(1) who wish to apply for an examiner certificate shall comply
with the prerequisites and revalidation requirements for that category of examiner.
(c) Examination outside the territory of the Member States:
(1) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), in the case of skill tests and proficiency checks provided in an ATO located
outside the territory of the Member States, the competent authority of the Member State may issue an examiner
certificate to an applicant holding a pilot licence issued by a third country in accordance with ICAO Annex 1,
provided that the applicant:
(i) holds at least an equivalent licence, rating, or certificate to the one for which they are authorised to conduct
skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence, and in any case at least a CPL;
(ii) complies with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of the relevant examiner certificate;
and
(iii) demonstrates to the competent authority an adequate level of knowledge of European aviation safety rules to
be able to exercise examiner privileges in accordance with this Part.
(2) The certificate referred to in paragraph (1) shall be limited to providing skill tests and proficiency tests/checks:
(i) outside the territory of the Member States; and
(ii) to pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which the test/check is given.
FCL.1005 Limitation of privileges in case of vested interests
Examiners shall not conduct:
(a) skill tests or assessments of competence of applicants for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate:
(1) to whom they have provided flight instruction for the licence, rating or certificate for which the skill test or
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(2) when they have been responsible for the recommendation for the skill test, in accordance with FCL.030(b);
(b) skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence whenever they feel that their objectivity may be affected.
FCL.1010 Prerequisites for examiners
Applicants for an examiner certificate shall demonstrate:
(a) relevant knowledge, background and appropriate experience related to the privileges of an examiner;
(b) that they have not been subject to any sanctions, including the suspension, limitation or revocation of any of their
licences, ratings or certificates issued in accordance with this Part, for non-compliance with the Basic Regulation and
its Implementing Rules during the last 3 years.
FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation
(a) Applicants for an examiner certificate shall undertake a standardisation course provided by the competent authority or
by an ATO and approved by the competent authority.
(b) The standardisation course shall consist of theoretical and practical instruction and shall include, at least:
(1) the conduct of 2 skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competences for the licences, ratings or
certificates for which the applicant seeks the privilege to conduct tests and checks;
(2) instruction on the applicable requirements in this part and the applicable air operations requirements, the conduct
of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence, and their documentation and reporting;
(3) a briefing on the national administrative procedures, requirements for protection of personal data, liability,
accident insurance and fees.
(c) Holders of an examiner certificate shall not conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence of an
applicant for which the competent authority is not the same that issued the examiner’s certificate, unless:
(1) they have informed the competent authority of the applicant of their intention to conduct the skill test, profi
ciency check or assessment of competence and of the scope of their privileges as examiners;
(2) they have received a briefing from the competent authority of the applicant on the elements mentioned in (b)(3).
FCL.1020 Examiners assessment of competence
Applicants for an examiner certificate shall demonstrate their competence to an inspector from the competent authority
or a senior examiner specifically authorised to do so by the competent authority responsible for the examiner’s certificate
through the conduct of a skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence in the examiner role for which
privileges are sought, including briefing, conduct of the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence, and
assessment of the person to whom the test, check or assessment is given, debriefing and recording documentation.
FCL.1025 Validity, revalidation and renewal of examiner certificates
(a) Validity. An examiner certificate shall be valid for 3 years.
(b) Revalidation. An examiner certificate shall be revalidated when the holder has, during the validity period of the
certificate:
(1) conducted at least 2 skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence every year;
(2) attended an examiner refresher seminar provided by the competent authority or by an ATO and approved by the
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(3) One of the skill tests or proficiency checks completed during the last year of the validity period in accordance
with (1) shall have been assessed by an inspector from the competent authority or by a senior examiner
specifically authorised to do so by the competent authority responsible for the examiner’s certificate.
(4) When the applicant for the revalidation holds privileges for more than one category of examiner, combined
revalidation of all examiner privileges may be achieved when the applicant complies with the requirements in
(b)(1) and (2) and FCL.1020 for one of the categories of examiner certificate held, in agreement with the
competent authority.
(c) Renewal. If the certificate has expired, applicants shall comply with the requirements of (b)(2) and FCL.1020 before
they can resume the exercise of the privileges.
(d) An examiner certificate shall only be revalidated or renewed if the applicant demonstrates continued compliance with
the requirements in FCL.1010 and FCL.1030.
FCL.1030 Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence
(a) When conducting skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence, examiners shall:
(1) ensure that communication with the applicant can be established without language barriers;
(2) verify that the applicant complies with all the qualification, training and experience requirements in this Part for
the issue, revalidation or renewal of the licence, rating or certificate for which the skill test, proficiency check or
assessment of competence is taken;
(3) make the applicant aware of the consequences of providing incomplete, inaccurate or false information related to
their training and flight experience.
(b) After completion of the skill test or proficiency check, the examiner shall:
(1) inform the applicant of the result of the test. In the event of a partial pass or fail, the examiner shall inform the
applicant that he/she may not exercise the privileges of the rating until a full pass has been obtained. The
examiner shall detail any further training requirement and explain the applicant’s right of appeal;
(2) in the event of a pass in a proficiency check or assessment of competence for revalidation or renewal, endorse the
applicant’s licence or certificate with the new expiry date of the rating or certificate, if specifically authorised for
that purpose by the competent authority responsible for the applicant’s licence;
(3) provide the applicant with a signed report of the skill test or proficiency check and submit without delay copies of
the report to the competent authority responsible for the applicant’s licence, and to the competent authority that
issued the examiner certificate. The report shall include:
(i) a declaration that the examiner has received information from the applicant regarding his/her experience and
instruction, and found that experience and instruction complying with the applicable requirements in this
Part;
(ii) confirmation that all the required manoeuvres and exercises have been completed, as well as information on
the verbal theoretical knowledge examination, when applicable. If an item has been failed, the examiner shall
record the reasons for this assessment;
(iii) the result of the test, check or assessment of competence.
(c) Examiners shall maintain records for 5 years with details of all skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of
competence performed and their results.
(d) Upon request by the competent authority responsible for the examiner certificate, or the competent authority
responsible for the applicant’s licence, examiners shall submit all records and reports, and any other information,
as required for oversight activities.

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SECTION 2
Specific requirements for flight examiners — FE
FCL.1005.FE FE — Privileges and conditions
(a) FE(A). The privileges of an FE for aeroplanes are to conduct:
(1) skill tests for the issue of the PPL(A) and skill tests and proficiency checks for associated single-pilot class and type
ratings, except for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, provided that the examiner has completed at
least 1 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 250 hours of flight
instruction;
(2) skill tests for the issue of the CPL(A) and skill tests and proficiency checks for the associated single-pilot class and
type ratings, except for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, provided that the examiner has
completed at least 2 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 250 hours
of flight instruction;
(3) skill tests and proficiency checks for the LAPL(A), provided that the examiner has completed at least 500 hours of
flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 100 hours of flight instruction;
(4) skill tests for the issue of a mountain rating, provided that the examiner has completed at least 500 hours of flight
time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 500 take-offs and landings of flight instruction for the
mountain rating.
(b) FE(H). The privileges of an FE for helicopters are to conduct:
(1) skill tests for the issue of the PPL(H) and skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot single-engine helicopter
type ratings entered in a PPL(H), provided that the examiner has completed 1 000 hours of flight time as a pilot
on helicopters, including at least 250 hours of flight instruction;
(2) skill tests for the issue of the CPL(H) and skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot single-engine helicopter
type ratings entered in a CPL(H), provided the examiner has completed 2 000 hours of flight time as pilot on
helicopters, including at least 250 hours of flight instruction;
(3) skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot multi-engine helicopter type ratings entered in a PPL(H) or a
CPL(H), provided the examiner has completed the requirements in (1) or (2), as applicable, and holds a CPL(H) or
ATPL(H) and, when applicable, an IR(H);
(4) skill tests and proficiency checks for the LAPL(H), provided that the examiner has completed at least 500 hours of
flight time as a pilot on helicopters, including at least 150 hours of flight instruction.
(c) FE(As). The privileges of an FE for airships are to conduct skill tests for the issue of the PPL(As) and CPL(As) and skill
tests and proficiency checks for the associated airship type ratings, provided that the examiner has completed 500
hours of flight time as a pilot on airships, including 100 hours of flight instruction.
(d) FE(S). The privileges of an FE for sailplanes are to conduct:
(1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the SPL and the LAPL(S), provided that the examiner has completed 300
hours of flight time as a pilot on sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including 150 hours or 300 launches of flight
instruction;
(2) proficiency checks for the extension of the SPL privileges to commercial operations, provided that the examiner
has completed 300 hours of flight time as a pilot on sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including 90 hours of flight
instruction;
(3) skill tests for the extension of the SPL or LAPL(S) privileges to TMG, provided that the examiner has completed
300 hours of flight time as a pilot on sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including 50 hours of flight instruction on
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(e) FE(B). The privileges of an FE for balloons are to conduct:
(1) skill tests for the issue of the BPL and the LAPL(B) and skill tests and proficiency checks for the extension of the
privileges to another balloon class or group, provided that the examiner has completed 250 hours of flight time as
a pilot on balloons, including 50 hours of flight instruction;
(2) proficiency checks for the extension of the BPL privileges to commercial operations, provided that the examiner
has completed 300 hours of flight time as a pilot on balloons, of which 50 hours in the same group of balloons
for which the extension is sought. The 300 hours of flight time shall include 50 hours of flight instruction.
FCL.1010.FE FE — Prerequisites
An applicant for an FE certificate shall hold:
an FI certificate in the appropriate aircraft category.
SECTION 3
Specific requirements for type rating examiners — TRE
FCL.1005.TRE TRE — Privileges and conditions
(a) TRE(A) and TRE(PL). The privileges of a TRE for aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft are to conduct:
(1) skill tests for the initial issue of type ratings for aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as applicable;
(2) proficiency checks for revalidation or renewal of type and IRs;
(3) skill tests for ATPL(A) issue;
(4) skill tests for MPL issue, provided that the examiner has complied with the requirements in FCL.925;
(5) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a TRI or SFI certificate in the applicable
aircraft category, provided that the examiner has completed at least 3 years as a TRE.
(b) TRE(H). The privileges of a TRE(H) are to conduct:
(1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of helicopter type ratings;
(2) proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of IRs, or for the extension of the IR(H) from single-engine
helicopters to multi-engine helicopters, provided the TRE(H) holds a valid IR(H);
(3) skill tests for ATPL(H) issue;
(4) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a TRI(H) or SFI(H) certificate, provided that the
examiner has completed at least 3 years as a TRE.
FCL.1010.TRE TRE — Prerequisites
(a) TRE(A) and TRE(PL). Applicants for a TRE certificate for aeroplanes and powered-lift aircraft shall:
(1) in the case of multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, have completed 1 500 hours of flight time as a pilot
of multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as applicable, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC;
(2) in the case of single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, have completed 500 hours of flight time as a
pilot of single-pilot aeroplanes, of which at least 200 hours shall be as PIC;
(3) hold a CPL or ATPL and a TRI certificate for the applicable type;
(4) for the initial issue of an TRE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of flight instruction as a TRI, FI or SFI
in the applicable type or an FSTD representing that type.

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(b) TRE(H). Applicants for a TRE (H) certificate for helicopters shall:
(1) hold a TRI(H) certificate or, in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, a valid FI(H) certificate, for the
applicable type;
(2) for the initial issue of a TRE certificate, have completed 50 hours of flight instruction as a TRI, FI or SFI in the
applicable type or an FSTD representing that type;
(3) in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and have completed 1 500 hours of flight as a
pilot on multi-pilot helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC;
(4) in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters:
(i) have completed 1 000 hours of flight as pilot on helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC;
(ii) hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and, when applicable, a valid IR(H);
(5) in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters:
(i) have completed 750 hours of flight as a pilot on helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC;
(ii) hold a professional helicopter pilot licence.
(6) Before the privileges of a TRE(H) are extended from single-pilot multi-engine to multi-pilot multi-engine privileges
on the same type of helicopter, the holder shall have at least 100 hours in multi-pilot operations on this type.
(7) In the case of applicants for the first multi-pilot multi-engine TRE certificate, the 1 500 hours of flight experience
on multi-pilot helicopters required in (b)(3) may be considered to have been met if they have completed the 500
hours of flight time as PIC on a multi-pilot helicopter of the same type.
SECTION 4
Specific requirements for Class Rating Examiner — CRE
FCL.1005.CRE CRE — Privileges
The privileges of a CRE are to conduct, for single-pilot aeroplanes, except for single-pilot high performance complex
aeroplanes:
(a) skill tests for the issue of class and type ratings;
(b) proficiency checks for:
(1) revalidation or renewal of class and type ratings;
(2) revalidation and renewal of IRs, provided that the CRE complies with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a).
FCL.1010.CRE CRE — Prerequisites
Applicants for a CRE certificate shall:
(a) hold a CPL(A), MPL(A) or ATPL(A) with single-pilot privileges or have held it and hold a PPL(A);
(b) hold a CRI certificate for the applicable class or type;
(c) have completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes.

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SECTION 5
Specific requirements for Instrument Rating Examiner — IRE
FCL.1005.IRE IRE — Privileges
The privileges of the holder of an IRE certificate are to conduct skill tests for the issue, and proficiency checks for the
revalidation or renewal of IRs.
FCL.1010.IRE IRE — Prerequisites
(a) IRE(A). Applicants for an IRE certificate for aeroplanes shall hold an IRI(A) and have completed:
(1) 2 000 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes; and
(2) 450 hours of flight time under IFR, of which 250 hours shall be as an instructor.
(b) IRE(H). Applicants for an IRE certificate for helicopters shall hold an IRI(H) and have completed:
(1) 2 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on helicopters; and
(2) 300 hours of instrument flight time on helicopters, of which 200 hours shall be as an instructor.
(c) IRE(As). Applicants for an IRE certificate for airships shall hold an IRI(As) and have completed:
(1) 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on airships; and
(2) 100 hours of instrument flight time on airships, of which 50 hours shall be as an instructor.
SECTION 6
Specific requirements for Synthetic Flight Examiner — SFE
FCL.1005.SFE SFE — Privileges and conditions
(a) SFE(A) and SFE(PL). The privileges of an SFE on aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft are to conduct in an FFS:
(1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of type ratings for multi-pilot aeroplanes or
powered-lift aircraft, as applicable;
(2) proficiency checks for revalidation or renewal of IRs, provided that the SFE complies with the requirements in
FCL.1010.IRE for the applicable aircraft category;
(3) skill tests for ATPL(A) issue;
(4) skill tests for MPL issue, provided that the examiner has complied with the requirements in FCL.925;
(5) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of an SFI certificate in the relevant aircraft
category, provided that the examiner has completed at least 3 years as an SFE.
(b) SFE(H). The privileges of an SFE for helicopters are to conduct in an FFS:
(1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings; and
(2) proficiency checks for the revalidation and renewal of IRs, provided that the SFE complies with the requirements
in FCL.1010.IRE(b);
(3) skill tests for ATPL(H) issue;
(4) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of an SFI(H) certificate, provided that the
examiner has completed at least 3 years as an SFE.

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FCL.1010.SFE SFE — Prerequisites
(a) SFE(A). Applicants for an SFE certificate for aeroplanes shall:
(1) hold or have held an ATPL(A), a class or type rating and an SFI(A) certificate for the applicable type of aeroplane;
(2) have at least 1 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(3) for the initial issue of an SFE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of synthetic flight instruction as an
SFI(A) on the applicable type.
(b) SFE(H). Applicants for an SFE certificate for helicopters shall:
(1) hold or have held an ATPL(H), a type rating and an SFI(H) certificate for the applicable type of helicopter;
(2) have at least 1 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;
(3) for the initial issue of an SFE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of synthetic flight instruction as an
SFI(H) on the applicable type.
SECTION 7
Specific requirements for the flight instructor examiner — FIE
FCL.1005.FIE FIE — Privileges and conditions
(a) FIE(A). The privileges of an FIE on aeroplanes are to conduct assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or
renewal of certificates for FI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) and TRI(A) on single-pilot aeroplanes, provided that the relevant
instructor certificate is held.
(b) FIE(H). The privileges of an FIE on helicopters are to conduct assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or
renewal of certificates for FI(H), IRI(H) and TRI(H) on single-pilot helicopters, provided that the relevant instructor
certificate is held.
(c) FIE(As), (S), (B). The privileges of an FIE on sailplanes, powered sailplanes, balloons and airships are to conduct
assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of instructor certificates on the applicable aircraft
category, provided that the relevant instructor certificate is held.
FCL.1010.FIE FIE — Prerequisites
(a) FIE(A). Applicants for an FIE certificate for aeroplanes shall:
in case of applicants wishing to conduct assessments of competence:
(1) hold the relevant instructor certificate, as applicable;
(2) have completed 2 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs; and
(3) have at least 100 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an instructor certificate.
(b) FIE(H). Applicants for an FIE certificate for helicopters shall:
(1) hold the relevant instructor certificate, as applicable;
(2) have completed 2 000 hours of flight time as pilot on helicopters;
(3) have at least 100 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an instructor certificate.

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(c) FIE(As). Applicants for an FIE certificate for airships shall:
(1) have completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on airships;
(2) have at least 20 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an FI(AS) certificate;
(3) hold the relevant instructor certificate.
(d) FIE(S). Applicants for an FIE certificate for sailplanes shall:
(1) hold the relevant instructor certificate;
(2) have completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on sailplanes or powered sailplanes;
(3) have completed:
(i) for applicants wishing to conduct assessments of competence on TMGs, 10 hours or 30 take-offs instructing
applicants for an instructor certificate in TMGs;
(ii) in all other cases, 10 hours or 30 launches instructing applicants for an instructor certificate.
(e) FIE(B). Applicants for an FIE certificate for balloons shall:
(1) hold the relevant instructor certificate;
(2) have completed 350 hours of flight time as a pilot on balloons;
(3) have completed 10 hours instructing applicants for an instructor certificate.

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Appendix 1
Crediting of theoretical knowledge
A. CREDITING OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR THE ISSUE OF A PILOT LICENCE IN ANOTHER
CATEGORY OF AIRCRAFT — BRIDGE INSTRUCTION AND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS
1. LAPL,
PPL,
BPL
and
SPL
1.1. For the issue of an LAPL, the holder of an LAPL in another category of aircraft shall be fully credited with theoretical
knowledge on the common subjects established in FCL.120(a).
1.2. Without prejudice to the paragraph above, for the issue of an LAPL, PPL, BPL or SPL, the holder of a licence in
another category of aircraft shall receive theoretical knowledge instruction and pass theoretical knowledge exam
inations to the appropriate level in the following subjects:
— Principles of Flight,
— Operational Procedures,
— Flight Performance and Planning,
— Aircraft General Knowledge, Navigation.
1.3. For the issue of a PPL, BPL or SPL, the holder of an LAPL in the same category of aircraft shall be credited in full
towards the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination requirements.
2. CPL
2.1. An applicant for a CPL holding a CPL in another category of aircraft shall have received theoretical knowledge bridge
instruction on an approved course according to the differences identified between the CPL syllabi for different
aircraft categories.
2.2. The applicant shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Part for the following subjects in the
appropriate aircraft category:
021 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerplant, Emergency Equipment,
022 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation,
032/034 — Performance Aeroplanes or Helicopters, as applicable,
070 — Operational Procedures, and
080 — Principles of Flight.
2.3. An applicant for a CPL having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for an IR in the same category of aircraft
is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:
— Human Performance,
— Meteorology.
3. ATPL
3.1. An applicant for an ATPL holding an ATPL in another category of aircraft shall have received theoretical knowledge
bridge instruction at an ATO according to the differences identified between the ATPL syllabi for different aircraft
categories.

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3.2. The applicant shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Part for the following subjects in the
appropriate aircraft category:
021 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerplant, Emergency Equipment,
022 — Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation,
032 — Performance,
070 — Operational Procedures, and
080 — Principles of Flight.
3.3. An applicant for an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for a CPL(A) is credited towards the
theoretical knowledge requirements in subject VFR Communications.
3.4. An applicant for an ATPL(H), having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL(H) is credited towards
the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:
— Air Law,
— Principles of Flight (Helicopter),
— VFR Communications.
3.5. An applicant for an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for an IR(A) is credited towards the
theoretical knowledge requirements in subject IFR Communications.
3.6. An applicant for an ATPL(H) with an IR(H), having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL(H) is
credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:
— Principles of Flight (Helicopter),
— VFR Communications.
4. IR
4.1. An applicant for an IR having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL in the same aircraft category is
credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:
— Human Performance,
— Meteorology.
4.2. An applicant for an IR(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for an ATPL(H) VFR is required to pass
the following examination subjects:
— Air Law,
— Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring,
— Radio Navigation,
— IFR Communications.

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Appendix 2
Language Proficiency Rating Scale — Expert, extended and operational level
Level Pronunciation Structure Vocabulary Fluency Comprehension Interactions
EN
Expert
Pronunciation, stress,
Both basic and complex Vocabulary range and
Able to speak at length with Comprehension is
Interacts with ease in nearly

(Level 6)
rhythm, and intonation, grammatical structures and accuracy are sufficient to a natural, effortless flow. consistently accurate in all situations. Is sensitive to
though possibly influenced sentence patterns are
communicate effectively on Varies speech flow for nearly all contexts and verbal and non-verbal cues,
by the first language or consistently well controlled. a wide variety of familiar stylistic effect, e.g. to includes comprehension of and responds to them appro
regional variation, almost
and unfamiliar topics.
emphasise a point.
linguistic and cultural
priately.
never interfere with ease of
Vocabulary is idiomatic, Uses appropriate discourse subtleties.
understanding.
nuanced and sensitive to markers and connectors
register.
spontaneously.
Extended
Pronunciation, stress,
Basic grammatical structures Vocabulary range and
Able to speak at length with Comprehension is accurate Responses are immediate,
(Level 5)
rhythm, and intonation, and sentence patterns are accuracy are sufficient to relative ease on familiar on common, concrete, and appropriate, and informative.
though influenced by the consistently well controlled. communicate effectively on topics, but may not vary work-related topics and Manages the speaker/listener
icial
first language or regional Complex structures are common, concrete, and speech flow as a stylistic mostly accurate when the relationship effectively.
variation, rarely interfere attempted but with errors work-related topics. Para device. Can make use of speaker is confronted with
Jour
with ease of understanding. which sometimes interfere phrases consistently and appropriate discourse
a linguistic or situational
with meaning.
successfully. Vocabulary is markers or connectors.
complication or an unex
nal
sometimes idiomatic.
pected turn of events.
of
Is able to comprehend a
the
range of speech varieties
European
(dialect and/or accent) or
registers.
Operational
Pronunciation, stress,
Basic grammatical structures Vocabulary range and
Produces stretches of
Comprehension is mostly Responses are usually Union
(Level 4)
rhythm, and intonation are and sentence patterns are accuracy are usually
language at an appropriate accurate on common,
immediate, appropriate, and
influenced by the first used creatively and are sufficient to communicate tempo.
concrete, and work-related informative.
language or regional
usually well controlled. effectively on common, There may be occasional loss topics when the accent or Initiates and maintains
variation but only
Errors may occur,
concrete, and work-related of fluency on transition variety used is sufficiently exchanges even when dealing
sometimes interfere with particularly in unusual or topics.
from rehearsed or formulaic intelligible for an inter with an unexpected turn of
ease of understanding.
unexpected circumstances, Can often paraphrase speech to spontaneous inter national community of events. Deals adequately with
but rarely interfere with successfully when lacking action, but this does not users.
apparent misunderstandings
meaning.
vocabulary particularly in prevent effective communi When the speaker is by checking, confirming, or
unusual or unexpected cation. Can make limited confronted with a linguistic clarifying.
circumstances.
use of discourse markers or situational complication
and connectors. Fillers are or an unexpected turn of
not distracting.
events, comprehension may
be slower or require clarifi
cation strategies.
Note: The initial text of Appendix 2 has been transferred to AMC, see also the Explanatory Note.
L
311/75

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Appendix 3
Training courses for the issue of a CPL and an ATPL
1. This Appendix describes the requirements for the different types of training courses for the issue of a CPL and an
ATPL, with and without an IR.
2. An applicant wishing to transfer to another ATO during a training course shall apply to the competent authority for
a formal assessment of the further hours of training required.
A. ATP integrated course — Aeroplanes
GENERAL
1. The aim of the ATP(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable them to
operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(A)/IR.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(A) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in
accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrant, 50 % of the hours
flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an
aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual
instruction flight time.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;
(b) visual and instrument flying training; and
(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable
requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An ATP(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction.
7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an
ATPL(A).
FLYING TRAINING
9. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, to include all
progress tests, of which up to 55 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of
195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 95 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 55 hours may be instrument ground time;
(b) 70 hours as PIC, including VFR flight and instrument flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC). The
instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;
(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the
course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which will include at
least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and

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(e) 115 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:
(1) 20 hours as SPIC;
(2) 15 hours MCC, for which an FFS or FNPT II may be used;
(3) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:
(i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT I; or
(ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be
conducted in an FNPT I.
An applicant holding a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with
up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;
(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons that has a variable
pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.
SKILL TEST
10. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine
or a multi-engine aeroplane and the IR skill test on a multi-engine aeroplane.
B. ATP modular course — Aeroplanes
1. Applicants for an ATPL(A) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall:
(a) hold at least a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and
complete at least the following hours of theoretical knowledge instruction:
(1) for applicants holding a PPL(A): 650 hours;
(2) for applicants holding a CPL(A): 400 hours;
(3) for applicants holding an IR(A): 500 hours;
(4) for applicants holding a CPL(A) and an IR(A): 250 hours.
The theoretical knowledge instruction shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken.
C. CPL/IR integrated course — Aeroplanes
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(A) and IR(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate
single-pilot single-engine or multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(A)/IR.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(A)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in
accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrant, 50 % of the hours
flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an
aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual
instruction flight time.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) and IR knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.

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5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable
requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. A CPL(A)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A)
and an IR.
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours, to include all
progress tests, of which up to 40 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of
180 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time;
(b) 70 hours as PIC, including VFR flight and instrument flight time which may be flown as SPIC. The instrument
flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;
(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the
course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at
least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and
(e) 100 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:
(1) 20 hours as SPIC; and
(2) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:
(i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I; or
(ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be
conducted in an FNPT I.
An applicant holding a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with
up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;
(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons that has a variable
pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.
SKILL TESTS
9. Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test and the IR skill test on
either a multi-engine aeroplane or a single-engine aeroplane.
D. CPL integrated course — Aeroplanes
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a
CPL(A).
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(A) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in
accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrant, 50 % of the hours
flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an
aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual
instruction flight time.

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4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are
met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. A CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A).
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, to include all
progress tests, of which up to 5 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of
150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;
(b) 70 hours as PIC;
(c) 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the
course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at
least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings;
(e) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I,
FTD 2, FNPT II or FFS. An applicant holding a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight
Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a
BITD shall not be credited;
(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least four persons that has a variable
pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on a single-engine or a multi-
engine aeroplane.
E. CPL modular course — Aeroplanes
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(A) modular course is to train PPL(A) holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of
a CPL(A).
2. Before commencing a CPL(A) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(A) issued in accordance with
Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.
3. Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:
(a) have completed 150 hours flight time;
(b) have complied with the prerequisites for the issue of a class or type rating for multi-engine aeroplanes in
accordance with Subpart H, if a multi-engine aeroplane is to be used on the skill test.
4. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(A) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an
ATO conducting theoretical knowledge instruction only.

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5. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A).
FLYING TRAINING
8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 25 hours dual flight instruction, including 10 hours of instrument
instruction of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in a BITD, an FNPT I or II, an FTD 2 or an FFS.
9. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants
holding a valid IR(H) shall be credited up to 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time, in which case at least
5 hours dual instrument instruction time shall be given in an aeroplane. An applicant holding a Course Completion
Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required
instrument instruction time.
10. (a) Applicants with a valid IR shall be given at least 15 hours dual visual flight instruction.
(b) Applicants without a night rating aeroplane shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instruction,
comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and
5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings.
11. At least 5 hours of the flight instruction shall be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least
4 persons and have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.
EXPERIENCE
12. The applicant for a CPL(A) shall have completed at least 200 hours flight time, including at least:
(a) 100 hours as PIC, of which 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, which shall include a VFR cross-country
flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from
the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(b) 5 hours of flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at
least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and
(c) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I,
or FNPT II or FFS. An applicant holding a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module
shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD
shall not be credited;
(d) 6 hours of flight time shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane.
(e) Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 200 hours flight time, in the following cases:
(i) 30 hours in helicopter, if the applicant holds a PPL(H); or
(ii) 100 hours in helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(H); or
(iii) 30 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or
(iv) 30 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or
(v) 60 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).

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SKILL TEST
13. Upon completion of the flying training and relevant experience requirements the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill
test on either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane.
F. ATP/IR integrated course — Helicopters
GENERAL
1. The aim of the ATP(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable them to
operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine helicopters in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(H)/IR.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in
accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50 % of the relevant experience
shall be credited, up to a maximum of:
(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) and IR knowledge level;
(b) visual and instrument flying training; and
(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H)/IR course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable
requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An ATP(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction.
7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an
ATPL(H) and an IR.
FLYING TRAINING
9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, to include all progress tests. Within the total of
195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 140 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(1) 75 hours visual instruction may include:
(i) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS, level C/D; or
(ii) 25 hours in a FTD 2,3; or
(iii) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or
(iv) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;
(2) 50 hours instrument instruction may include:
(i) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II/III; or
(ii) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT 1 or an aeroplane;

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(3) 15 hours MCC, for which a helicopter FFS or helicopter FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.
If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS used for the visual
training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III;
(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be
made;
(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC including a VFR
cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two different aerodromes
from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at
least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a
landing;
(e) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:
(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and
(ii) 40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated helicopter.
SKILL TESTS
10. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi-engine
helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR certificated multi-engine helicopter and shall comply with the requirements
for MCC training.
G. ATP integrated course — Helicopters
GENERAL
1. The aim of the ATP(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable them to
operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine helicopters limited to VFR privileges in commercial air transport and
to obtain the CPL(H).
2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in
accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50 % of the relevant experience
shall be credited, up to a maximum of:
(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) knowledge level;
(b) visual and basic instrument flying training; and
(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H) course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are
met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An ATP(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 650 hours of instruction.
7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 20 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises.

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THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an
ATPL (H).
FLYING TRAINING
9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, to include all progress tests. Within the total of
150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 95 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(i) 75 hours visual instruction may include:
(1) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or
(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or
(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or
(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;
(ii) 10 hours basic instrument instruction may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane;
(iii) 10 hours MCC, for which a helicopter: helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.
If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS used for the visual
training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III;
(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be
made;
(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC, including a VFR
cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two different aerodromes
from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at
least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a
landing.
SKILL TESTS
10. Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi-engine
helicopter and comply with MCC requirements.
H. ATP modular course — Helicopters
1. Applicants for an ATPL(H) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall hold at
least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction within a period of 18 months:
(a) for applicants holding a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention: 550 hours;
(b) for applicants holding a CPL(H): 300 hours.
2. Applicants for an ATPL(H)/IR who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall hold at
least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction:
(a) for applicants holding a PPL(H): 650 hours;
(b) for applicants holding a CPL(H): 400 hours;
(c) for applicants holding an IR(H): 500 hours;
(d) for applicants holding a CPL(H) and an IR(H): 250 hours.

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I. CPL/IR integrated course — Helicopters
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate single-
pilot multi-engine helicopters and to obtain the CPL(H)/IR multi-engine helicopter.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in
accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(H), 50 % of the
relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:
(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) and IR knowledge level, and the initial multi-engine helicopter type
rating; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H)/IR course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable
requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. A CPL(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(H)
and an IR.
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours including all progress tests. Within the 180 hours,
applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 125 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(i) 75 hours visual instruction, which may include:
(1) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or
(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or
(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or
(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;
(ii) 50 hours instrument instruction which may include:
(1) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3, or FNPT II, III; or
(2) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane.
If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the
maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III;
(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be
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(c) 10 hours dual cross-country flying;
(d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the
course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(e) 5 hours of flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including
at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a
landing;
(f) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:
(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and
(ii) 40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated helicopter.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on either a multi-engine
or a single-engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter.
J. CPL integrated course — Helicopters
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a
CPL(H).
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued in
accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(H), 50 % of the
relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:
(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H) course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are
met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction or 200 hours if
the applicant is the holder of a PPL.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(H).
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 135 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours
may be instrument ground time. Within the 135 hours total, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 85 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(i) up to 75 hours may be visual instruction, and may include:
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(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or
(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or
(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;
(ii) up to 10 hours may be instrument instruction, and may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an
aeroplane.
If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the
maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III;
(b) 50 hours as PIC, of which 35 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be
made;
(c) 10 hours dual cross-country flying;
(d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the
course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(e) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at
least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a
landing;
(f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in a helicopter.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test.
K. CPL modular course — Helicopters
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(H) modular course is to train PPL(H) holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of
a CPL(H).
2. Before commencing a CPL(H) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with
Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.
3. Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:
(a) have completed 155 hours flight time as a pilot in helicopters, including 50 hours as PIC of which 10 hours shall
be cross-country;
(b) have complied with FCL.725 and FCL.720.H if a multi-engine helicopter is to be used on the skill test.
4. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(H) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an
ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction only.
5. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(H).

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FLYING TRAINING
8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 30 hours dual flight instruction, of which:
(a) 20 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II, III; and
(b) 10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FTD 1 or FNPT I or
aeroplane.
9. Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants
holding a valid IR(A) shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time in a helicopter.
10. Applicants without a night rating helicopter shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instruction
comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits.
Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.
EXPERIENCE
11. The applicant for a CPL(H) shall have completed at least 185 hours flight time, including 50 hours as PIC, of which
10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), in the
course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.
Hours as pilot-in-command of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the
following cases:
(a) 20 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a PPL(A); or
(b) 50 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a CPL(A); or
(c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or
(d) 20 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or
(e) 50 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).
SKILL TEST
12. Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test.
L. CPL/IR integrated course — Airships
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(As)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate airships
and to obtain the CPL(As)/IR.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H)
issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(As), PPL(A) or
PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of:
(a) 10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction, if an airship night rating has been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) and IR knowledge level, and the initial airship type rating; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.

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5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(As) course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable
requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. A CPL(As)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(As)
and an IR.
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 80 hours including all progress tests. Within the 80 hours,
applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 60 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(i) 30 hours visual instruction, which may include:
(1) 12 hours in an airship FFS; or
(2) 10 hours in an airship FTD; or
(3) 8 hours in an airship FNPT II/III; or
(4) 8 hours in an aeroplane, helicopter or TMG;
(ii) 30 hours instrument instruction which may include:
(1) up to 12 hours in an airship FFS or FTD or FNPT II, III; or
(2) 6 hours in at least a airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.
If the airship used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the
maximum credit shall be limited to 8 hours;
(b) 20 hours as PIC, of which 5 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night shall be
made;
(c) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) in the
course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at
least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include take-off and landing;
(e) 30 hours of dual instrument time comprising:
(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and
(ii) 20 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificated airship.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test on either a multi-engine
or a single-engine airship and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine airship.
M. CPL integrated course — Airships
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(As) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue of a
CPL(AS).
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

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3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H)
issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(As), PPL(A) or
PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of:
(a) 10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction if a airship night rating has been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(As) course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicable requirements are
met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction or 200 hours if
the applicant is a PPL holder.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(As).
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 50 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours
may be instrument ground time. Within the 50 hours total, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 30 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;
(b) 20 hours as PIC;
(c) 5 hours dual cross-country flying;
(d) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) in the
course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;
(e) 5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at
least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include take-off and landing;
(f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in an airship.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test.
N. CPL modular course — Airships
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(As) modular course is to train PPL(As) holders to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue
of a CPL(As).
2. Before commencing a CPL(As) modular course an applicant shall:
(a) hold a PPL(As) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;
(b) have completed 200 hours flight time as a pilot on airships, including 100 hours as PIC, of which 50 hours shall
be cross-country.
3. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(As) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one
continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an
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4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
5. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
6. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(As).
FLYING TRAINING
7. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 20 hours dual flight instruction, of which:
10 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in an airship FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II, III; and
10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least an airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.
8. Applicants holding a valid IR(As) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants
holding a valid IR in another category of aircraft shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction
time in an airship.
9. Applicants without a night rating airship shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instruction
comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night
circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.
EXPERIENCE
10. The applicant for a CPL(As) shall have completed at least 250 hours flight time in airships, including 125 hours as
PIC, of which 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM),
in the course of which a full stop landing at destination aerodrome.
Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the following cases:
(a) 30 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a PPL(A) or PPL(H) respectively; or
(b) 60 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(A) or CPL(H) respectively; or
(c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or
(d) 10 hours in balloons.
SKILL TEST
11. Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test.

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Appendix 4
Skill test for the issue of a CPL
A. General
1. An applicant for a skill test for the CPL shall have received instruction on the same class or type of aircraft to be used
in the test.
2. An applicant shall pass all the relevant sections of the skill test. If any item in a section is failed, that section is failed.
Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test again. An applicant failing only in
one section shall only repeat the failed section. Failure in any section of the retest, including those sections that have
been passed on a previous attempt, will require the applicant to take the entire test again. All relevant sections of the
skill test shall be completed within 6 months. Failure to achieve a pass in all relevant sections of the test in two
attempts will require further training.
3. Further training may be required following any failed skill test. There is no limit to the number of skill tests that may
be attempted.
CONDUCT OF THE TEST
4. Should the applicant choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the Flight Examiner (FE), the
applicant shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the FE, only those
sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight.
5. At the discretion of the FE, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicant. The FE
may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s demonstration of flying skills requires a complete
re-test.
6. An applicant shall be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions can be performed and to
carry out the test as if no other crew member is present. Responsibility for the flight shall be allocated in accordance
with national regulations.
7. An applicant shall indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out, including the identification of radio facilities.
Checks shall be completed in accordance with the checklist for the aircraft on which the test is being taken. During
pre-flight preparation for the test, the applicant is required to determine power settings and speeds. Performance data
for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculated by the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or
flight manual for the aircraft used.
8. The FE shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where intervention is necessary in the interests of
safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic.
B. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL — Aeroplanes
1. The aeroplane used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training aeroplanes, and shall be certificated for
the carriage of at least four persons, have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.
2. The route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and the destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The applicant
shall be responsible for the flight planning and shall ensure that all equipment and documentation for the execution of
the flight are on board. The duration of the flight shall be at least 90 minutes.
3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or
manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

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FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES
4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and
performance of the aeroplane used.
Height
normal flight
± 100 feet
with simulated engine failure ± 150 feet
Tracking on radio aids
± 5°
Heading
normal flight
± 10°
with simulated engine failure ± 15°
Speed
take-off and approach
± 5 knots
all other flight regimes
± 10 knots
CONTENT OF THE TEST
5. Items in section 2(c) and (e)(iv), and the whole of sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an FNPT II or an FFS.
Use of the aeroplane checklists, airmanship, control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, anti-icing/de-icing
procedures and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Pre-flight, including:
a
Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS
b
Aeroplane inspection and servicing
c
Taxiing and take-off
d
Performance considerations and trim
e
Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations
f
Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)
g
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK
a
Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, lookout
b
Flight at critically low airspeeds including recognition of and recovery from incipient and full stalls
c
Turns, including turns in landing configuration. Steep turns 45°
d
Flight at critically high airspeeds, including recognition of and recovery from spiral dives
Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:
(i) level flight, cruise configuration, control of heading, altitude and airspeed
e
(ii) climbing and descending turns with 10°-30° bank
(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes
(iv) limited panel instruments
f
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

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SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
Control of aeroplane by external visual reference, including cruise configuration Range/Endurance
a
considerations
b
Orientation, map reading
c
Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout
d
Altimeter setting. ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of
e
correct tracking
f
Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning
Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of
g
diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)
SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a
Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout
b
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
c
Go-around action from low height
d
Normal landing, crosswind landing (if suitable conditions)
e
Short field landing
f
Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)
g
Landing without use of flaps
h
Post-flight actions
SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4
a
Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill
Equipment malfunctions
b
including alternative landing gear extension, electrical and brake failure
c
Forced landing (simulated)
d
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
e
Oral questions
SECTION 6 — SIMULATED ASYMMETRIC FLIGHT AND RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5
a
Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)
b
Asymmetric approach and go-around
c
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d
Engine shutdown and restart
e
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship
As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable:
(i) aeroplane systems including handling of autopilot
f
(ii) operation of pressurisation system
(iii) use of de-icing and anti-icing system
g
Oral questions
C. Content of the skill test for the issue of the CPL — Helicopters
1. The helicopter used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training helicopters.
2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and all low level and hover work shall be at an approved
aerodrome/site. Routes used for section 3 may end at the aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome and one
destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in 2 flights. The total duration of the
flight(s) shall be at least 90 minutes.
3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the helicopter within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or
manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES
4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and
performance of the helicopter used.
Height
normal flight
± 100 feet
simulated major emergency
± 150 feet
Tracking on radio aids
± 10°
Heading
normal flight
± 10°
simulated major emergency
± 15°
Speed
take-off and approach multi-engine ± 5 knots
all other flight regimes
± 10 knots
Ground drift
T.O. hover I.G.E.
± 3 feet
landing no sideways or backwards movement

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CONTENT OF THE TEST
5. Items in section 4 may be performed in a helicopter FNPT or a helicopter FFS. Use of helicopter checklists, airmanship,
control of helicopter by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of threat and error management
apply in all sections.
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT/POST-FLIGHT CHECKS AND PROCEDURES
Helicopter knowledge (e.g. technical log, fuel, mass and balance, performance), flight planning,
a
documentation, NOTAMS, weather
b
Pre-flight inspection/action, location of parts and purpose
c
Cockpit inspection, starting procedure
d
Communication and navigation equipment checks, selecting and setting frequencies
e
Pre-take-off procedure, R/T procedure, ATC liaison-compliance
f
Parking, shutdown and post-flight procedure
SECTION 2 — HOVER MANOEUVRES, ADVANCED HANDLING AND CONFINED AREAS
a
Take-off and landing (lift-off and touchdown)
b
Taxi, hover taxi
c
Stationary hover with head/cross/tail wind
d
Stationary hover turns, 360° left and right (spot turns)
e
Forward, sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring
f
Simulated engine failure from the hover
g
Quick stops into and downwind
h
Sloping ground/unprepared sites landings and take-offs
i
Take-offs (various profiles)
j
Crosswind, downwind take-off (if practicable)
k
Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated)
l
Approaches (various profiles)
m
Limited power take-off and landing
n
Autorotations (FE to select two items from — Basic, range, low speed, and 360° turns)
o
Autorotative landing
p
Practice forced landing with power recovery
q
Power checks, reconnaissance technique, approach and departure technique
SECTION 3 — NAVIGATION — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a
Navigation and orientation at various altitudes/heights, map reading
b
Altitude/height, speed, heading control, observation of airspace, altimeter setting
Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, endurance, ETA, assessment of track error and re-
c
establishment of correct track, instrument monitoring
d
Observation of weather conditions, diversion planning

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e
Tracking, positioning (NDB and/or VOR), identification of facilities
f
ATC liaison and observance of regulations, etc.
SECTION 4 — FLIGHT PROCEDURES AND MANOEUVRES BY SOLE REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS
a
Level flight, control of heading, altitude/height and speed
b
Rate 1 level turns onto specified headings, 180° to 360° left and right
c
Climbing and descending, including turns at rate 1 onto specified headings
d
Recovery from unusual attitudes
e
Turns with 30° bank, turning up to 90° left and right
SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (SIMULATED WHERE APPROPRIATE)
Note 1: Where the test is conducted on a multi-engine helicopter a simulated engine failure drill, including a single-
engine approach and landing, shall be included in the test.
Note 2: The FE shall select four items from the following:
a
Engine malfunctions, including governor failure, carburettor/engine icing, oil system, as appropriate
b
Fuel system malfunction
c
Electrical system malfunction
d
Hydraulic system malfunction, including approach and landing without hydraulics, as applicable
e
Main rotor and/or anti-torque system malfunction (FFS or discussion only)
f
Fire drills, including smoke control and removal, as applicable
Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in appropriate flight manual, including for multi-
engine helicopters:
Simulated engine failure at take-off:
rejected take-off at or before TDP or safe forced landing at or before DPATO, shortly after TDP or
DPATO.
g
Landing with simulated engine failure:
landing or go-around following engine failure before LDP or DPBL,
following engine failure after LDP or safe forced landing after DPBL.
D. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL — Airships
1. The airship used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training airships.
2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE. Routes used for section 3 may end at the aerodrome of
departure or at another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skill test may be
conducted in 2 flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 60 minutes.
3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the airship within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(e) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or
manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

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FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES
4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and
performance of the airship used.
Height
normal flight
± 100 feet
simulated major emergency
± 150 feet
Tracking on radio aids
± 10°
Heading
normal flight
± 10°
simulated major emergency
± 15°
CONTENT OF THE TEST
5. Items in sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an Airship FNPT or an airship FFS. Use of airship checklists,
airmanship, control of airship by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of threat and error
management apply in all sections.
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Pre-flight, including:
a
Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and Balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS
b
Airship inspection and servicing
c
Off-mast procedure, ground manoeuvring and take-off
d
Performance considerations and trim
e
Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations
f
Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)
g
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK
a
Control of the airship by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, lookout
b
Flight at pressure height
c
Turns
d
Steep descents and climbs
Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:
(i) level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed
e
(ii) climbing and descending turns
(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes
(iv) limited panel instruments
f
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
Control of airship by external visual reference,
a
Range/Endurance considerations
b
Orientation, map reading

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c
Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout
d
Altimeter setting, ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of
e
correct tracking
f
Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning
Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of
g
diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)
SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a
Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout
b
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
c
Go-around action from low height
d
Normal landing
e
Short field landing
f
Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)
g
Landing without use of flaps
h
Post-flight actions
SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4
a
Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill
b
Equipment malfunctions
c
Forced landing (simulated)
d
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
e
Oral questions
SECTION 6 — RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5
a
Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)
b
Approach and go-around with failed engine(s)
c
Approach and full stop landing with failed engine(s)
d
Malfunctions in the envelope pressure system
e
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship
As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable:
f
(i) airship systems
(ii) operation of envelope pressure system
g
Oral questions

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Appendix 5
Integrated MPL training course
GENERAL
1. The aim of the MPL integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable them to operate
as co-pilot of a multi-engine multi-pilot turbine-powered air transport aeroplane under VFR and IFR and to obtain an
MPL.
2. Approval for an MPL training course shall only be given to an ATO that is part of a commercial air transport
operator certificated in accordance with Part-MS and the applicable air operations requirements or having a specific
arrangement with such an operator. The licence shall be restricted to that specific operator until completion of the
airline operator’s conversion course.
3. An applicant wishing to undertake an MPL integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one
continuous course of training at an ATO. The training shall be competency based and conducted in a multi-crew
operational environment.
4. Only ab-initio applicants shall be admitted to the course.
5. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;
(b) visual and instrument flying training;
(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and
(d) type rating training.
6. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire MPL course may apply to the competent authority for the
theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable
requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
7. An approved MPL theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction for the ATPL(A)
knowledge level, as well as the hours required for theoretical knowledge instruction for the relevant type rating, in
accordance with Subpart H.
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 240 hours, composed of hours as PF and PNF, in actual and
simulated flight, and covering the following 4 phases of training:
(a) Phase 1 — Core flying skills
Specific basic single-pilot training in an aeroplane.
(b) Phase 2 — Basic
Introduction of multi-crew operations and instrument flight.
(c) Phase 3 — Intermediate
Application of multi-crew operations to a multi-engine turbine aeroplane certified as a high performance
aeroplane in accordance with Part-21.
(d) Phase 4 — Advanced
Type rating training within an airline oriented environment.
Flight experience in actual flight shall include all the experience requirements of Subpart H, upset recovery training,
night flying, flight solely by reference to instruments and the experience required to achieve the relevant airmanship.

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MCC requirements shall be incorporated into the relevant phases above.
Training in asymmetric flight shall be given either in an aeroplane or an FFS.
9. Each phase of training in the flight instruction syllabus shall be composed of both instruction in the underpinning
knowledge and in practical training segments.
10. The training course shall include a continuous evaluation process of the training syllabus and a continuous
assessment of the students following the syllabus. Evaluation shall ensure that:
(a) the competencies and related assessment are relevant to the task of a co-pilot of a multi-pilot aeroplane; and
(b) the students acquire the necessary competencies in a progressive and satisfactory manner.
11. The training course shall include at least 12 take-offs and landings to ensure competency. These take-offs and
landings shall be performed under the supervision of an instructor in an aeroplane for which the type rating
shall be issued.
ASSESSMENT LEVEL
12. The applicant for the MPL shall have demonstrated performance in all 9 competency units specified in paragraph 13
below, at the advanced level of competency required to operate and interact as a co-pilot in a turbine-powered multi-
pilot aeroplane, under visual and instrument conditions. Assessment shall confirm that control of the aeroplane or
situation is maintained at all times, to ensure the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre. The applicant
shall consistently demonstrate the knowledge, skills and attitudes required for the safe operation of the applicable
aeroplane type, in accordance with the MPL performance criteria.
COMPETENCY UNITS
13. The applicant shall demonstrate competency in the following 9 competency units:
(1) apply human performance principles, including principles of threat and error management;
(2) perform aeroplane ground operations;
(3) perform take-off;
(4) perform climb;
(5) perform cruise;
(6) perform descent;
(7) perform approach;
(8) perform landing; and
(9) perform after landing and aeroplane post-flight operations.
SIMULATED FLIGHT
14. Minimum requirements for FSTDs:
(a) Phase 1 — Core flying skills
E-training and part tasking devices approved by the competent authority that have the following characteristics:
— involve accessories beyond those normally associated with desktop computers, such as functional replicas of a
throttle quadrant, a side-stick controller, or an FMS keypad, and
— involve psychomotor activity with appropriate application of force and timing of responses.

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(b) Phase 2 — Basic
An FNPT II MCC that represents a generic multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane.
(c) Phase 3 — Intermediate
An FSTD that represents a multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot and
qualified to an equivalent standard to level B, additionally including:
— a daylight/twilight/night visual system continuous cross-cockpit minimum collimated visual field of view
providing each pilot with 180° horizontal and 40° vertical field of view, and
— ATC environment simulation.
(d) Phase 4 — Advanced
An FFS which is fully equivalent to level D or level C with an enhanced daylight visual system, including ATC
environment simulation.

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Appendix 6
Modular training courses for the IR
A. IR(A) — Modular flying training course
GENERAL
1.
The aim of the IR(A) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate
aeroplanes under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separately or
combined:
(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module
This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can be instrument
ground time in a BITD, FNPT I or II, or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic Instrument Flight Module, the
candidate shall be issued a Course Completion Certificate.
(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module
This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(A), 40 hours single-engine or 45 hours multi-
engine instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(A).
2.
An applicant for a modular IR(A) course shall be the holder of a PPL(A) or a CPL(A), including the privileges to fly
at night. An applicant for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who does not hold a CPL(A), shall be holder of
a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module.
The ATO shall ensure that the applicant for a multi-engine IR(A) course who has not held a multi-engine aeroplane
class or type rating has received the multi-engine training specified in Subpart H prior to commencing the flight
training for the IR(A) course.
3.
An applicant wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(A) course shall be
required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training. Prior to
commencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall ensure the competence of the applicant in
basic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall be given as required.
4.
The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural Instrument Flight
Module and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in theoretical examinations.
5. The
course
shall
comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;
(b) instrument flight instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6.
An approved modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction.
FLYING TRAINING
7.
A single-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 50 hours instrument time under instruction of which up to
20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 35 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of
10 hours of FNPT II or an FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.
8.
A multi-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 55 hours instrument time under instruction, of which up to
25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 40 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of
10 hours of FNPT II or an FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I. The remaining instrument
flight instruction shall include at least 15 hours in multi-engine aeroplanes.
9.
The holder of a single-engine IR(A) who also holds a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to obtain a multi-
engine IR(A) for the first time shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours instruction in
instrument flying in multi-engine aeroplanes, of which 3 hours may be in an FFS or FNPT II.

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10.1. The holder of a CPL(A) or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module may have the
total amount of training required in paragraphs 7 or 8 above reduced by 10 hours.
10.2. The holder of an IR(H) may have the total amount of training required in paragraphs 7 or 8 above reduced by
10 hours.
10.3. The total instrument flight instruction in aeroplane shall comply with paragraph 7 or 8, as appropriate.
11. The flying exercises up to the IR(A) skill test shall comprise:
(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module: Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:
basic instrument flight without external visual cues:
— horizontal flight,
— climbing,
— descent,
— turns in level flight, climbing, descent;
instrument pattern;
steep turn;
radionavigation;
recovery from unusual attitudes;
limited panel;
recognition and recovery from incipient and full stalls;
(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module:
(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic
services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(ii) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering
at least:
— transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,
— standard instrument departures and arrivals,
— en-route IFR procedures,
— holding procedures,
— instrument approaches to specified minima,
— missed approach procedures,
— landings from instrument approaches, including circling;
(iii) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;
(iv) if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including operation of the
aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine
shutdown and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS
or FNPT II).

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B. IR(H) — Modular flying training course
1. The aim of the IR(H) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate
helicopters under IFR and in IMC.
2. An applicant for a modular IR(H) course shall be the holder of a PPL(H) with night rating, or a CPL(H) or an
ATPL(H). Prior to commencing the aircraft instruction phase of the IR(H) course, the applicant shall be the holder of
the helicopter type rating used for the IR(H) skill test, or have completed approved type rating training on that type.
The applicant shall hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC if the skill test is to be conducted in Multi-
Pilot conditions.
3. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular IR(H) course shall be required to complete all the instructional stages
in one continuous approved course of training.
4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The flight instruction and the skill test
shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.
5. The
course
shall
comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;
(b) instrument flight instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An
approved
modular
IR(H)
course
shall
comprise
at
least
150
hours
of
instruction.
FLYING TRAINING
7. A single-engine IR(H) course shall comprise at least 50 hours instrument time under instruction, of which:
(a) up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I(H) or (A). These 20 hours instruction time in FNPT
I (H) or (A) may be substituted by 20 hours instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved for this course;
or
(b) up to 35 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS.
The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated helicopter.
8. A multi-engine IR(H) course shall comprise at least 55 hours instrument time under instruction of which;
(a) up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I (H) or (A). These 20 hours instruction time in
FNPT I (H) or (A) may be substituted by 20 hours instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved for this
course; or
(b) up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS.
The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter.
9.1. Holders of an ATPL(H) shall have the theoretical knowledge instruction hours reduced by 50 hours.
9.2. The holder of an IR(A) may have the amount of training required reduced by 10 hours.
10. The flying exercises up to the IR(H) skill test shall comprise:
(a) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services
documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(b) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at
least:
transition from visual to instrument flight on takeoff,
standard instrument departures and arrivals,
en-route IFR procedures,

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holding procedures,
instrument approaches to specified minima,
missed approach procedures,
landings from instrument approaches, including circling;
(c) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;
(d) if required, operation of a multi-engine helicopter in the above exercises, including operation of the helicopter
solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shutdown and restart (the
latter exercise to be carried out in an FFS or FNPT II or FTD 2/3).
C. IR(As) — Modular flying training course
GENERAL
1. The aim of the IR(As) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate
airships under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separately or combined:
(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module
This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can be instrument ground
time in a BITD, FNPT I or II, or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic Instrument Flight Module, the candidate
shall be issued a Course Completion Certificate.
(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module
This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(As), 25 hours instrument time under instruction,
and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(As).
2. An applicant for a modular IR(As) course shall be the holder of a PPL(As) including the privileges to fly at night or a
CPL(As). An applicant for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who does not hold a CPL(As), shall be holder of a
Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module.
3. An applicant wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(As) course shall be
required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training. Prior to commencing
the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall ensure the competence of the applicant in basic instrument
flying skills. Refresher training shall be given as required.
4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural Instrument Flight Module
and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in theoretical examinations.
5. The
course
shall
comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;
(b) instrument flight instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved modular IR(As) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction.
FLYING TRAINING
7. An IR(As) course shall comprise at least 35 hours instrument time under instruction of which up to 15 hours may
be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 20 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II
or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.
8. The holder of a CPL(As) or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module may have the
total amount of training required in paragraph 7 reduced by 10 hours. The total instrument flight instruction in
airship shall comply with paragraph 7.
9. If the applicant is the holder of an IR in another category of aircraft the total amount of flight instruction required
may be reduced to 10 hours on airships.

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10. The flying exercises up to the IR(As) skill test shall comprise:
(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module:
Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:
basic instrument flight without external visual cues:
— horizontal flight,
— climbing,
— descent,
— turns in level flight, climbing, descent;
instrument pattern;
radionavigation;
recovery from unusual attitudes;
limited panel;
(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module:
(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air traffic services
documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(ii) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at
least:
— transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,
— standard instrument departures and arrivals,
— en-route IFR procedures,
— holding procedures,
— instrument approaches to specified minima,
— missed approach procedures,
— landings from instrument approaches, including circling;
(iii) inflight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;
(iv) operation of airship in the above exercises, including operation of the airship solely by reference to
instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shut-down and restart (the latter exercise
to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

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Appendix 7
IR skill test
1. An applicant for an IR shall have received instruction on the same class or type of aircraft to be used in the test.
2. An applicant shall pass all the relevant sections of the skill test. If any item in a section is failed, that section is failed.
Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test again. An applicant failing only one
section shall only repeat the failed section. Failure in any section of the retest, including those sections that have been
passed on a previous attempt, will require the applicant to take the entire test again. All relevant sections of the skill
test shall be completed within 6 months. Failure to achieve a pass in all relevant sections of the test in two attempts
will require further training.
3. Further training may be required following a failed skill test. There is no limit to the number of skill tests that may be
attempted.
CONDUCT OF THE TEST
4. The test is intended to simulate a practical flight. The route to be flown shall be chosen by the examiner. An essential
element is the ability of the applicant to plan and conduct the flight from routine briefing material. The applicant
shall undertake the flight planning and shall ensure that all equipment and documentation for the execution of the
flight are on board. The duration of the flight shall be at least 1 hour.
5. Should the applicant choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the examiner, the applicant
shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only those
sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight.
6. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicant.
The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s demonstration of flying skill
requires a complete retest.
7. An applicant shall fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions can be performed and to carry out the test
as if there is no other crew member. The examiner shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft, except when
intervention is necessary in the interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic. Responsibility for
the flight shall be allocated in accordance with national regulations.
8. Decision heights/altitude, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed approach point shall be determined by the
applicant and agreed by the examiner.
9. An applicant for an IR shall indicate to the examiner the checks and duties carried out, including the identification of
radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the authorised checklist for the aircraft on which the
test is being taken. During pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant is required to determine power settings and
speeds. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculated by the applicant in compliance with
the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES
10. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
operate the aircraft within its limitations;
complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
exercise good judgment and airmanship;
apply aeronautical knowledge; and
maintain control of the aircraft at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or
manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

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11. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and
performance of the aircraft used.
Height
Generally ±
100
feet
Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 feet/– 0 feet
Minimum descent height/MAP/altitude
+ 50 feet/– 0 feet
Tracking
On radio aids
± 5°
Precision approach
half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path
Heading
all engines operating
± 5°
with simulated engine failure ± 10°
Speed
all engines operating
± 5 knots
with simulated engine failure + 10 knots/– 5 knots
CONTENT OF THE TEST
Aeroplanes
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Use of checklist, airmanship, anti-icing/de-icing procedures, etc., apply in all sections
a
Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially a/c performance calculation, mass and balance
b
Use of Air Traffic Services document, weather document
c
Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log
d
Pre-flight inspection
e
Weather Minima
f
Taxiing
g
Pre-take-off briefing, Take-off
h ( o )
Transition to instrument flight
i ( o )
Instrument departure procedures, altimeter setting
j ( o )
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 2 — GENERAL HANDLING ( o )
a
Control of the aeroplane by reference solely to instruments, including: level flight at various speeds, trim
b
Climbing and descending turns with sustained Rate 1 turn
c
Recoveries from unusual attitudes, including sustained 45° bank turns and steep descending turns
Recovery from approach to stall in level flight, climbing/descending turns and in landing configuration
d (*)
— only applicable to aeroplanes
Limited panel: stabilised climb or descent, level turns at Rate 1 onto given headings, recovery from
e
unusual attitudes — only applicable to aeroplanes

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SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES ( o )
a
Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV
b
Use of radio aids
c
Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting, trim technique
d
Altimeter settings
e
Timing and revision of ETAs (en-route hold, if required)
f
Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems’ management
g
Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary
h
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 4 — PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES ( o )
a
Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities
b
Arrival procedures, altimeter checks
c
Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks
d ( + )
Holding procedure
e
Compliance with published approach procedure
f
Approach timing
g
Altitude, speed heading control (stabilised approach)
h ( + )
Go-around action
i ( + )
Missed approach procedure/landing
j
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 5 — NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES ( o )
a
Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities
b
Arrival procedures, altimeter settings
c
Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks
d ( + )
Holding procedure
e
Compliance with published approach procedure
f
Approach timing
g
Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised approach)
h ( + )
Go-around action
i ( + )
Missed approach procedure/landing
j
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

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SECTION 6 — FLIGHT WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE (multi-engine aeroplanes only) ( o )
a
Simulated engine failure after take-off or on go-around
b
Approach, go-around and procedural missed approach with one engine inoperative
c
Approach and landing with one engine inoperative
d
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
(*) May be performed in an FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II.
( + ) May be performed in either section 4 or section 5.
( o ) Must be performed by sole reference to instruments.
Helicopters
SECTION 1 — DEPARTURE
Use of checklist, airmanship, anti-icing/de-icing procedures, etc., apply in all sections
a
Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially aircraft performance calculation; mass and balance
b
Use of Air Traffic Services document, weather document
c
Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log
d
Pre-flight inspection
e
Weather minima
f
Taxiing/Air taxy in compliance with ATC or instructions of instructor
g
Pre-take-off briefing, procedures and checks
h
Transition to instrument flight
i
Instrument departure procedures
SECTION 2 — GENERAL HANDLING
a
Control of the helicopter by reference solely to instruments, including:
b
Climbing and descending turns with sustained Rate 1 turn
c
Recoveries from unusual attitudes, including sustained 30° bank turns and steep descending turns
SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES
a
Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV
b
Use of radio aids
c
Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting
d
Altimeter settings
e
Timing and revision of ETAs
f
Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems management
g
Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary and if applicable
h
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures

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SECTION 4 — PRECISION APPROACH
a
Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities
b
Arrival procedures, altimeter checks
c
Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks
d (*)
Holding procedure
e
Compliance with published approach procedure
f
Approach timing
g
Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised approach)
h (*)
Go-around action
i (*)
Missed approach procedure/landing
j
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 5 — NON-PRECISION APPROACH
a
Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities
b
Arrival procedures, altimeter checks
c
Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks
d (*)
Holding procedure
e
Compliance with published approach procedure
f
Approach timing
g
Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised approach)
h (*)
Go-around action
i (*)
Missed approach procedure (*)/landing
j
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 6 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5. The test shall have regard to control of the helicopter,
identification of the failed engine, immediate actions (touch drills), follow-up actions and checks and flying accuracy,
in the following situations:
Simulated engine failure after take-off and on/during approach (**) (at a safe altitude unless carried out in
a
an FFS or FNPT II/III, FTD 2,3)
b
Failure of stability augmentation devices/hydraulic system (if applicable)
c
Limited panel
d
Autorotation and recovery to a pre-set altitude
Precision approach manually without flight director (***)
e
Precision approach manually with flight director (***)
(*) To be performed in section 4 or section 5.
(**) Multi-engine helicopter only.
(***) Only one item to be tested.

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Airships
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Use of checklist, airmanship, ATC liaison compliance, R/T procedures, apply in all sections
a
Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially a/c performance calculation, mass and balance
b
Use of Air Traffic Services document, weather document
c
Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log
d
Pre-flight inspection
e
Weather minima
f
Pre-take-off briefing, off mast procedure, manoeuvring on ground
g
Take-off
h
Transition to instrument flight
i
Instrument departure procedures, altimeter setting
j
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 2 — GENERAL HANDLING
a
Control of the airship by reference solely to instruments
b
Climbing and descending turns with sustained rate of turn
c
Recoveries from unusual attitudes
d
Limited panel
SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES
a
Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV
b
Use of radio aids
c
Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting, trim technique
d
Altimeter settings
e
Timing and revision of ETAs
f
Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems’ management
g
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 4 — PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES
a
Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities
b
Arrival procedures, altimeter checks
c
Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks
d ( + )
Holding procedure
e
Compliance with published approach procedure
f
Approach timing
g
Stabilised approach (altitude, speed and heading control)

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h ( + )
Go-around action
i ( + )
Missed approach procedure/landing
j
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 5 — NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES
a
Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities
b
Arrival procedures, altimeter settings
c
Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks
d ( + )
Holding procedure
e
Compliance with published approach procedure
f
Approach timing
g
Stabilised approach (altitude, speed and heading control)
h ( + )
Go-around action
i ( + )
Missed approach procedure/landing
j
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 6 — FLIGHT WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5. The test shall have regard to control of the airship,
identification of the failed engine, immediate actions, follow-up actions, checks and flying accuracy in the following
situations:
a
Simulated engine failure after take-off or on go-around
b
Approach and procedural go-around with one engine inoperative
c
Approach and landing, missed approach procedure, with one engine inoperative
d
ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
( + ) May be performed in either section 4 or section 5.

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Official Journal of the European Union
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Appendix 8
Cross-crediting of the IR part of a class or type rating proficiency check
A. Aeroplanes
Credits shall be granted only when the holder is revalidating IR privileges for single-engine and single-pilot multi-engine
aeroplanes, as appropriate.
When a proficiency check including IR is Credit is valid towards the IR part in a proficiency check for:
performed, and the holder has a valid:
MP type rating;
SE class (*) and
High performance complex aeroplane type rating SE type rating (*), and
SP ME class, and SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane
type rating, only credits for section 3B of the skill test for single
pilot non-high performance complex aeroplane of Appendix 9 (*)
SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane SP ME class (*), and
type rating, operated as single-pilot
SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane type rating, and
SE class and type rating (*)
SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane a. SP ME class (*), and
type rating, restricted to MP operation
b. SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane type rating (*),
and
c. SE class and type rating (*)
SP ME class rating, operated as single-pilot SE
class
and
type
rating,
and
SP ME class, and
SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane type rating
SP ME class rating, restricted to MP operation SE
class
and
type
rating
(*),
and
SP ME class (*), and
SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane type rating (*)
SP SE class rating SE
class
and
type
rating
SP SE type rating SE
class
and
type
rating
(*) Provided that within the preceding 12 months the applicant has flown at least three IFR departures and approaches on an SP class or
type of aeroplane in single pilot operations, or, for multi-engine non-high performance non-complex aeroplanes, the applicant has
passed section 6 of the skill test for single-pilot non-high performance non-complex aeroplanes flown solely by reference to
instruments in single-pilot operation.
B. Helicopters
Credits shall be granted only when the holder is revalidating IR privileges for single-engine and single-pilot multi-engine
helicopters as appropriate.
When a proficiency check, including IR, is Credit is valid towards the IR part in a proficiency check for:
performed and the holder has a valid:
MPH type rating SE
type
rating
(*),
and
SP ME type rating (*).
SP ME type rating, operated as single-pilot SE
type
rating,
SP ME type rating.
SP ME type rating, restricted to multi-pilot oper SE type rating, (*)
ation
SP ME type rating (*).
(*) Provided that within the preceding 12 months at least 3 IFR departures and approaches have been performed on an SP type of
helicopter in an SP operation.

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Appendix 9
Training, skill test and proficiency check for MPL, ATPL, type and class ratings, and proficiency check for IRs
A. General
1. An applicant for a skill test shall have received instruction on the same class or type of aircraft to be used in the test.
2. Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in two attempts will require further training.
3. There is no limit to the number of skill tests that may be attempted.
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING, SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK
4. Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, the syllabus of
flight instruction shall comply with this Appendix. The syllabus may be reduced to give credit for previous experience
on similar aircraft types, as determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21.
5. Except in the case of skill tests for the issue of an ATPL, when so defined in the operational suitability data
established in accordance with Part-21 for the specific type, credit may be given for skill test items common to
other types or variants where the pilot is qualified.
CONDUCT OF THE TEST/CHECK
6. The examiner may choose between different skill test or proficiency check scenarios containing simulated relevant
operations developed and approved by the competent authority. Full flight simulators and other training devices,
when available, shall be used, as established in this Part.
7. During the proficiency check, the examiner shall verify that the holder of the class or type rating maintains an
adequate level of theoretical knowledge.
8. Should the applicant choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the examiner, the applicant
shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only those
sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight.
9. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicant.
The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s demonstration of flying skill
requires a complete re-test.
10. An applicant shall be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC or co-pilot functions, as relevant, can
be performed and to carry out the test as if there is no other crew member if taking the test/check under single-pilot
conditions. Responsibility for the flight shall be allocated in accordance with national regulations.
11. During pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant is required to determine power settings and speeds. The
applicant shall indicate to the examiner the checks and duties carried out, including the identification of radio
facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the check-list for the aircraft on which the test is being
taken and, if applicable, with the MCC concept. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be
calculated by the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used.
Decision heights/altitude, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed approach point shall be agreed upon
with the examiner.
12. The examiner shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where intervention is necessary in the interests
of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic.
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK FOR MULTI-PILOT AIRCRAFT TYPE
RATINGS, FOR SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANE TYPE RATINGS, WHEN OPERATED IN MULTI-PILOT OPERATIONS,
FOR MPL AND ATPL
13. The skill test for a multi-pilot aircraft or a single-pilot aeroplane when operated in multi-pilot operations shall be
performed in a multi-crew environment. Another applicant or another type rated qualified pilot may function as
second pilot. If an aircraft is used, the second pilot shall be the examiner or an instructor.

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14. The applicant shall operate as PF during all sections of the skill test, except for abnormal and emergency procedures,
which may be conducted as PF or PNF in accordance with MCC. The applicant for the initial issue of a multi-pilot
aircraft type rating or ATPL shall also demonstrate the ability to act as PNF. The applicant may choose either the left
hand or the right hand seat for the skill test if all items can be executed from the selected seat.
15. The following matters shall be specifically checked by the examiner for applicants for the ATPL or a type rating for
multi-pilot aircraft or for multi-pilot operations in a single-pilot aeroplane extending to the duties of a PIC,
irrespective of whether the applicant acts as PF or PNF:
(a) management of crew cooperation;
(b) maintaining a general survey of the aircraft operation by appropriate supervision; and
(c) setting priorities and making decisions in accordance with safety aspects and relevant rules and regulations
appropriate to the operational situation, including emergencies.
16. The test/check should be accomplished under IFR, if the IR rating is included, and as far as possible be accomplished
in a simulated commercial air transport environment. An essential element to be checked is the ability to plan and
conduct the flight from routine briefing material.
17. When the type rating course has included less than 2 hours flight training on the aircraft, the skill test may be
conducted in an FFS and may be completed before the flight training on the aircraft. In that case, a certificate of
completion of the type rating course including the flight training on the aircraft shall be forwarded to the competent
authority before the new type rating is entered in the applicant’s licence.
B. Specific requirements for the aeroplane category
PASS MARKS
1. In the case of single-pilot aeroplanes, with the exception of for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, the
applicant shall pass all sections of the skill test or proficiency check. If any item in a section is failed, that section is
failed. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test or check again. Any applicant
failing only one section shall take the failed section again. Failure in any section of the re-test or re-check including
those sections that have been passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant to take the entire test or check
again. For single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes, section 6 of the relevant test or check, addressing asymmetric flight,
shall be passed.
2. In the case of multi-pilot and single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, the applicant shall pass all sections of
the skill test or proficiency check. Failure of more than five items will require the applicant to take the entire test or
check again. Any applicant failing five or less items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any item on the re-test
or re-check including those items that have been passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant to take the
entire check or test again. Section 6 is not part of the ATPL or MPL skill test. If the applicant only fails or does not
take section 6, the type rating will be issued without CAT II or CAT III privileges. To extend the type rating privileges
to CAT II or CAT III, the applicant shall pass the section 6 on the appropriate type of aircraft.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or
manoeuvre is always assured;
(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, if applicable; and
(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members, if applicable.

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4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and
performance of the aeroplane used:
Height
Generally ±
100
feet
Starting a go-around at decision height + 50 feet/– 0 feet
Minimum descent height/altitude
+ 50 feet/– 0 feet
Tracking
on radio aids
± 5°
Precision approach
half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path
Heading
all engines operating
± 5°
with simulated engine failure
± 10°
Speed
all engines operating
± 5 knots
with simulated engine failure
+ 10 knots/– 5 knots
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK
5. Single-pilot aeroplanes, except for high performance complex aeroplanes:
(a) The following symbols mean:
P = Trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as Pilot Flying (PF) and Pilot Not Flying (PNF)
X = Flight simulators shall be used for this exercise, if available, otherwise an aeroplane shall be used if
appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure
P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection
(b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be
conducted on any higher level of equipment shown by the arrow (——>)
The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
A =
Aeroplane
FFS = Full Flight Simulator
FTD = Flight Training Device (including FNPT II for ME class rating)
(c) The starred (*) items of section 3B and, for multi-engine, section 6, shall be flown solely by reference to
instruments if revalidation/renewal of an IR is included in the skill test or proficiency check. If the starred (*)
items are not flown solely by reference to instruments during the skill test or proficiency check, and when there is
no crediting of IR privileges, the class or type rating will be restricted to VFR only.
(d) Section 3A shall be completed to revalidate a type or multi-engine class rating, VFR only, where the required
experience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed. Section 3A is not required
if section 3B is completed.
(e) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatory exercise
or a choice where more than one exercise appears.

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(f) An FFS or an FNPT II shall be used for practical training for type or multi-engine class ratings if they form part of
an approved class or type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course:
(i) the qualification of the FFS or FNPT II as set out in Part-OR;
(ii) the qualifications of the instructors;
(iii) the amount of FFS or FNPT II training provided on the course; and
(iv) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilot under training.
(g) When a skill test or proficiency check is performed in multi-pilot operations, the type rating shall be restricted to
multi-pilot operations.
SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, EXCEPT FOR
HIGH PERFORMANCE COMPLEX
PRACTICAL TRAINING
CLASS OR TYPE RATING
AEROPLANES
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
SECTION 1
1 Departure
1.1 Pre-flight
including:
Documentation
Mass and Balance
Weather briefing
NOTAM
1.2 Pre-start
checks
1.2.1 External
P#
P
1.2.2 Internal
P
M
1.3 Engine
starting:
Normal
P——> ——> ——>
M
Malfunctions
1.4 Taxiing
P——> ——>
M
1.5 Pre-departure
checks:
P——> ——> ——>
M
Engine run-up (if applicable)
1.6 Take-off
procedure:
Normal with Flight Manual flap
settings
P——> ——>
Crosswind (if conditions available)
1.7 Climbing:
Vx/Vy
P——> ——>
M
Turns onto headings
Level off

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SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, EXCEPT FOR
HIGH PERFORMANCE COMPLEX
PRACTICAL TRAINING
CLASS OR TYPE RATING
AEROPLANES
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
1.8 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure
SECTION 2
2 Airwork
(VMC)
2.1 Straight
and
level
flight
at
various
airspeeds including flight at
critically low airspeed with and
P——> ——>
without flaps (including approach
to VMCA when applicable)
2.2 Steep
turns
(360°
left
and
right
at
45° bank)
P——> ——>
M
2.3 Stalls
and
recovery:
(i) Clean stall
(ii) Approach to stall in
descending turn with bank
with approach configuration
and power
P——> ——>
M
(iii) Approach to stall in landing
configuration and power
(iv) Approach to stall, climbing
turn with take-off flap and
climb power (single engine
aeroplane only)
2.4 Handling
using
autopilot
and
flight director (may be conducted
P——> ——>
M
in section 3) if applicable
2.5 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure
SECTION 3A
3A En-route
procedures
VFR
(see B.5(c) and (d))
3A.1 Flight plan, dead reckoning and
map reading

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SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, EXCEPT FOR
HIGH PERFORMANCE COMPLEX
PRACTICAL TRAINING
CLASS OR TYPE RATING
AEROPLANES
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
3A.2 Maintenance of altitude, heading
and speed
3A.3 Orientation, timing and revision of
ETAs
3A.4 Use of radio navigation aids (if
applicable)
3A.5 Flight management (flight log,
routine checks including fuel,
systems and icing)
3A.6 ATC liaison — Compliance, R/T
procedure
SECTION 3B
3B Instrument
flight
3B.1* Departure IFR
P——> ——>
M
3B.2* En-route IFR
P——> ——>
M
3B.3* Holding procedures
P——> ——>
M
3B.4* ILS to DH/A of 200' (60 m) or to
procedure minima (autopilot may
P——> ——>
M
be used to glideslope intercept)
3B.5* Non-precision approach to
MDH/A and MAP
P——> ——>
M
3B.6* Flight exercises including
simulated failure of the compass
and attitude indicator:
P——> ——> ——>
M
rate 1 turns,
recoveries from unusual attitudes
3B.7* Failure of localiser or glideslope
P——> ——> ——>
3B.8* ATC liaison — Compliance, R/T
procedure

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SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, EXCEPT FOR
HIGH PERFORMANCE COMPLEX
PRACTICAL TRAINING
CLASS OR TYPE RATING
AEROPLANES
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
Intentionally left blank
SECTION 4
4 Arrival
and
landings
4.1 Aerodrome
arrival
procedure
P——> ——>
M
4.2 Normal
landing
P——> ——>
M
4.3 Flapless
landing
P——> ——>
M
4.4 Crosswind
landing
(if
suitable
conditions)
P——> ——>
4.5 Approach
and
landing
with
idle
power from up to 2 000' above
the runway (single-engine
P——> ——>
aeroplane only)
4.6 Go-around
from
minimum
height
P——> ——>
M
4.7 Night
go-around
and
landing
(if
applicable)
P——> ——> ——>
4.8 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure
SECTION 5
5 Abnormal
and
emergency
procedures
(This section may be combined
with sections 1 through 4)
5.1 Rejected
take-off
at
a
reasonable
speed
P——> ——>
M
5.2 Simulated
engine
failure
after
take-
off (single-engine aeroplanes only)
P
M

---

L 311/122
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, EXCEPT FOR
HIGH PERFORMANCE COMPLEX
PRACTICAL TRAINING
CLASS OR TYPE RATING
AEROPLANES
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
5.3 Simulated
forced
landing
without
power (single-engine aeroplanes
P
M
only)
5.4 Simulated
emergencies:
(i) fire or smoke in flight;
P——> ——> ——>
(ii) systems’ malfunctions as
appropriate
5.5 Engine
shutdown
and
restart
(ME
skill test only) (at a safe altitude if P——> ——> ——>
performed in the aircraft)
5.6 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure
SECTION 6
6 Simulated
asymmetric
flight
6.1* (This section may be combined
with sections 1 through 5)
Simulated engine failure during P——> ——> —>X
M
take-off (at a safe altitude unless
carried out in FFS or FNPT II)
6.2* Asymmetric approach and go-
around
P——> ——> ——>
M
6.3* Asymmetric approach and full
stop landing
P——> ——> ——>
M
6.4 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure

---

EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/123
6. Multi-pilot aeroplanes and single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes:
(a) The following symbols mean:
P = Trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as PF and PNF for the issue of a type rating as applicable.
X = Simulators shall be used for this exercise, if available; otherwise an aircraft shall be used if appropriate for
the manoeuvre or procedure.
P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection.
(b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be
conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (———>).
The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
A =
Aeroplane
FFS = Full Flight Simulator
FTD = Flight Training Device
OTD = Other Training Devices
(c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not met during the skill
test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only.
(d) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatory exercise.
(e) An FFS shall be used for practical training and testing if the FFS forms part of an approved type rating course. The
following considerations will apply to the approval of the course:
(i) the qualification of the FFS or FNPT II;
(ii) the qualifications of the instructors;
(iii) the amount of FFS or FNPT II training provided on the course; and
(iv) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilot under training.
(f) Manoeuvres and procedures shall include MCC for multi-pilot aeroplane and for single-pilot high performance
complex aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations.
(g) Manoeuvres and procedures shall be conducted in single-pilot role for single-pilot high performance complex
aeroplanes in single-pilot operations.
(h) In the case of single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, when a skill test or proficiency check is
performed in multi-pilot operations, the type rating shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations. If privileges of
single-pilot are sought, the manoeuvres/procedures in 2.5, 3.9.3.4, 4.3, 5.5 and at least one manoeuvre/procedure
from section 3.4 have to be completed in addition as single-pilot.
(i) In case of a restricted type rating issued in accordance with FCL.720.A(e), the applicants shall fulfil the same
requirements as other applicants for the type rating except for the practical exercises relating to the take-off and
landing phases.

---

L 311/124
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
SECTION 1
1. Flight
preparation
1.1 Performance
calculation
P
1.2 Aeroplane
external
visual inspection;
location of each
P#
P
item and purpose
of inspection
1.3 Cockpit
inspection
P———> ———> ———>
1.4 Use
of
checklist
prior to starting
engines, starting
procedures, radio
and navigation
equipment check,
P———> ———> ———> ———>
M
selection and
setting of
navigation and
communication
frequencies
1.5 Taxiing
in
compliance with
air traffic control
P———> ———>
or instructions of
instructor
1.6 Before
take-off
checks
P———> ———> ———>
M
SECTION 2
2. Take-offs
2.1 Normal
take-offs
with different flap
settings, including
P———> ———>
expedited take-off
2.2* Instrument
take-
off; transition to
instrument flight is
required during
P———> ———>
rotation or
immediately after
becoming airborne

---

EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/125
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
2.3 Crosswind
take-off
P———> ———>
2.4 Take-off
at
maximum take-off
mass (actual or
simulated
P———> ———>
maximum take-off
mass)
2.5 Take-offs
with
simulated engine
failure:
2.5.1* shortly
after
reaching V2
(In aeroplanes
which are not
certificated as
transport category
or commuter
category
aeroplanes, the
engine failure shall
not be simulated
until reaching a
minimum height
of 500 ft above
P———> ———>
runway end. In
aeroplanes having
the same
performance as a
transport category
aeroplane
regarding take-off
mass and density
altitude, the
instructor may
simulate the engine
failure shortly after
reaching V2)
2.5.2* between
V1
and
M
V2
P
X
FFS Only
2.6 Rejected
take-off
at
a reasonable speed
P———> ——>X
M
before reaching V1

---

L 311/126
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
SECTION 3
3. Flight
Manoeuvres
and Procedures
3.1 Turns
with
and
without spoilers
P———> ——>
3.2 Tuck
under
and
Mach buffets after
——>X
reaching the
An
critical Mach
aircraft
number, and other
P———> may not
specific flight
be used
characteristics of
for this
the aeroplane (e.g.
exercise
Dutch Roll)
3.3 Normal
operation
of systems and
controls engineer’s P———> ———> ———> ———>
panel
A
mandatory
minimum
Normal and abnormal
of 3
operations of following
abnormal
M
systems:
shall be
selected
from 3.4.0
to 3.4.14
inclusive
3.4.0 Engine
(if
necessary
P———> ———> ———> ———>
propeller)
3.4.1 Pressurisation
and
air-conditioning
P———> ———> ———> ———>
3.4.2 Pitot/static
system
P———> ———> ———> ———>
3.4.3 Fuel
system
P———> ———> ———> ———>
3.4.4 Electrical
system
P———> ———> ———> ———>

---

EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/127
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
3.4.5 Hydraulic
system
P———> ———> ———> ———>
3.4.6 Flight
control
and
Trim-system
P———> ———> ———> ———>
3.4.7 Anti-icing/de-icing
system, Glare
P———> ———> ———> ———>
shield heating
3.4.8 Autopilot/Flight
M (single
director
P———> ———> ———> ———>
pilot
Only)
3.4.9 Stall
warning
devices or stall
avoidance devices,
and stability
P———> ———> ———> ———>
augmentation
devices
3.4.10 Ground
proximity
warning system,
weather radar,
P———> ———> ———>
radio altimeter,
transponder
3.4.11 Radios,
navigation
equipment,
instruments, flight P———> ———> ———> ———>
management
system
3.4.12 Landing
gear
and
brake
P———> ———> ———> ———>
3.4.13 Slat
and
flap
system
P———> ———> ———> ———>
3.4.14 Auxiliary
power
unit
P———> ———> ———> ———>
Intentionally left blank
A
mandatory
minimum
3.6 Abnormal
and
of three
emergency
M
items shall
procedures:
be selected
from 3.6.1
to 3.6.9
inclusive

---

L 311/128
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
3.6.1 Fire
drills,
e.g.
engine, APU,
cabin, cargo
compartment,
flight deck, wing
P———> ———> ———>
and electrical fires
including
evacuation
3.6.2 Smoke
control
and
removal
P———> ———> ———>
3.6.3 Engine
failures,
shutdown and
restart at a safe
P———> ———> ———>
height
3.6.4 Fuel
dumping
(simulated)
P———> ———> ———>
3.6.5 Wind
shear
at
take-off/landing
P
X FFS
Only
3.6.6 Simulated
cabin
pressure
failure/emergency
P———> ———>
descent
3.6.7 Incapacitation
of
flight crew
P———> ———> ———>
member
3.6.8 Other
emergency
procedures as
outlined in the
appropriate
P———> ———> ———>
Aeroplane Flight
Manual
An
3.6.9 ACAS
event
P———> ———> ———>
aircraft
may not
FFS Only
be used
3.7 Steep
turns
with
45° bank, 180° to
P———> ———> ———>
360° left and right

---

EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/129
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
3.8 Early
recognition
and counter
measures on
approaching stall
(up to activation of
stall warning
device) in take-off
configuration (flaps
in take-off
P———> ———>
position), in
cruising flight
configuration and
in landing
configuration (flaps
in landing
position, gear
extended)
3.8.1 Recovery
from
full
stall or after
activation of stall
warning device in
P
X
climb, cruise and
approach
configuration
3.9 Instrument
flight
procedures
3.9.1* Adherence
to
departure and
arrival routes and
P———> ———> ———>
M
ATC instructions
3.9.2* Holding
procedures
P———> ———> ———>
3.9.3* Precision
approaches down
to a decision
height (DH) not
less than 60 m
(200 ft)
3.9.3.1* manually, without
flight director
P———> ———>
M (skill
test only)
3.9.3.2* manually, with
flight director
P———> ———>
3.9.3.3* with autopilot
P———> ———>

---

L 311/130
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
3.9.3.4* manually, with one
engine simulated
inoperative; engine
failure has to be
simulated during
final approach
before passing the
outer marker (OM)
until touchdown
or through the
complete missed
approach
procedure
In aeroplanes
which are not
certificated as
transport category
aeroplanes
(JAR/FAR 25) or as
commuter category
aeroplanes (SFAR
23), the approach
with simulated
engine failure and
the ensuing go-
around shall be
initiated in
conjunction with
the non-precision
P———> ———>
M
approach as
described in 3.9.4.
The go-around
shall be initiated
when reaching the
published obstacle
clearance height
(OCH/A), however
not later than
reaching a
minimum descent
height/altitude
(MDH/A) of 500 ft
above runway
threshold
elevation. In
aeroplanes having
the same
performance as a
transport category
aeroplane
regarding take-off
mass and density
altitude, the
instructor may
simulate the engine
failure in
accordance with
3.9.3.4.
3.9.4* Non-precision
approach down to
P*—> ———>
M
the MDH/A

---

EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/131
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
3.9.5 Circling
approach
under following
conditions:
(a)* approach to
the authorised
minimum
circling
approach
altitude at the
aerodrome in
question in
accordance
with the local
instrument
approach
facilities in
simulated
instrument
flight
conditions;
followed by:
P*—> ———>
(b) circling
approach to
another
runway at
least 90° off
centreline
from final
approach used
in item (a), at
the authorised
minimum
circling
approach
altitude.
Remark: if (a) and
(b) are not possible
due to ATC
reasons, a
simulated low
visibility pattern
may be performed.
SECTION 4
4. Missed
Approach
Procedures
4.1 Go-around
with
all
engines operating*
after an ILS
approach on
P*—> ———>
reaching decision
height

---

L 311/132
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Chkd in
Instructor
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
FFS
initials when
training
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
4.2 Other
missed
approach
P*—> ———>
procedures
4.3* Manual
go-around
with the critical
engine simulated
inoperative after an
instrument
P*——> ———>
M
approach on
reaching DH, MDH
or MAPt
4.4 Rejected
landing
at
15 m (50 ft) above
runway threshold
P———> ———>
and go-around
SECTION 5
5. Landings
5.1 Normal
landings*
also after an ILS
approach with
transition to visual
P
flight on reaching
DH
5.2 Landing
with
An
simulated jammed
aircraft
horizontal
may not
stabiliser in any
P———> be used
out-of-trim
for this
position
exercise
5.3 Crosswind
landings
(a/c, if practicable)
P———> ———>
5.4 Traffic
pattern
and
landing without
extended or with
P———> ———>
partly extended
flaps and slats
5.5 Landing
with
critical engine
simulated
P———> ———>
M
inoperative

---

EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/133
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Chkd in
Instructor
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
FFS
initials when
training
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
5.6 Landing
with
two
engines
inoperative:
— aeroplanes with
3 engines: the
M
centre engine
and 1 outboard
engine as far as
FFS only
practicable
P
X
according to
data of the
(skill test
AFM,
only)
— aeroplanes with
4 engines: 2
engines at one
side
General remarks:
Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 feet (60 m),
i.e. Cat II/III operations.
SECTION 6
Additional authorisation on
a type rating for instrument
approaches down to a
decision height of less than
60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III).
The following manoeuvres
and procedures are the
minimum training
requirements to permit
instrument approaches
down to a DH of less than
60 m (200 ft). During the
following instrument
approaches and missed
approach procedures all
aeroplane equipment
required for type
certification of instrument
approaches down to a DH
of less than 60 m (200 ft)
shall be used.
——>X
6.1* Rejected
take-off
at
An
minimum
P*——>
aircraft
M*
authorised RVR
may not
be used
for this
exercise

---

L 311/134
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES
AND SINGLE-PILOT
ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
HIGH-PERFORMANCE
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR PROF.
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
CHECK
Chkd in
Instructor
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
FFS
initials when
training
test
OTD FTD FFS
A
completed
completed
A
6.2* ILS
approaches:
in simulated
instrument flight
conditions down
to the applicable
DH, using flight
guidance system.
Standard
procedures of crew
P———> ———>
M
coordination (task
sharing, call out
procedures, mutual
surveillance,
information
exchange and
support) shall be
observed
6.3* Go-around:
after approaches as
indicated in 6.2 on
reaching DH.
The training shall
also include a go-
around due to
(simulated)
insufficient RVR,
wind shear,
P———> ———> M*
aeroplane deviation
in excess of
approach limits for
a successful
approach, and
ground/airborne
equipment failure
prior to reaching
DH and, go-around
with simulated
airborne
equipment failure.
6.4* Landing(s):
with visual
reference
established at DH
following an
instrument
P———> ———>
M
approach.
Depending on the
specific flight
guidance system,
an automatic
landing shall be
performed
Note: CAT II/III operations shall be accomplished in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements.

---

EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/135
7. Class ratings — sea.
Section 6 shall be completed to revalidate a multi-engine class rating sea, VFR only, where the required experience of
10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed.
CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL
TRAINING
Manoeuvres/Procedures
Instructor’s initials when training
completed
Examiner’s initials when test completed
SECTION 1
1. Departure
1.1 Pre-flight
including:
Documentation
Mass and Balance
Weather briefing
NOTAM
1.2 Pre-start
checks
External/internal
1.3 Engine
start-up
and
shutdown
Normal malfunctions
1.4 Taxiing
1.5 Step
taxiing
1.6 Mooring: Beach
Jetty pier
Buoy
1.7 Engine-off
sailing
1.8 Pre-departure
checks:
Engine run-up
(if applicable)
1.9 Take-off
procedure:
Normal with Flight Manual flap
settings
Crosswind (if conditions available)
1.10 Climbing
Turns onto headings
Level off
1.11 ATC liaison — Compliance, R/T
procedure
SECTION 2
2. Airwork
(VFR)
2.1 Straight
and
level
flight
at
various
airspeeds including flight at critically
low airspeed with and without flaps
(including approach to VMCA when
applicable)

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L 311/136
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL
TRAINING
Manoeuvres/Procedures
Instructor’s initials when training
completed
Examiner’s initials when test completed
2.2 Steep
turns
(360°
left
and
right
at
45°
bank)
2.3 Stalls
and
recovery:
(i) clean stall;
(ii) approach to stall in descending
turn with bank with approach
configuration and power;
(iii) approach to stall in landing
configuration and power;
(iv) approach to stall, climbing turn
with take-off flap and climb
power (single-engine aeroplane
only)
2.4 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure
SECTION 3
3. En-route
procedures
VFR
3.1 Flight
plan,
dead
reckoning
and
map
reading
3.2 Maintenance
of
altitude,
heading
and
speed
3.3 Orientation,
timing
and
revision
of
ETAs
3.4 Use
of
radio
navigation
aids
(if
applicable)
3.5 Flight
management
(flight
log,
routine
checks including fuel, systems and
icing)
3.6 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure
SECTION 4
4. Arrivals
and
landings
4.1 Aerodrome
arrival
procedure
(amphibians only)
4.2 Normal
landing
4.3 Flapless
landing
4.4 Crosswind
landing
(if
suitable
conditions)
4.5 Approach
and
landing
with
idle
power
from up to 2 000' above the water
(single-engine aeroplane only)

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/137
CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL
TRAINING
Manoeuvres/Procedures
Instructor’s initials when training
completed
Examiner’s initials when test completed
4.6 Go-around
from
minimum
height
4.7 Glassy
water
landing
Rough water landing
4.8 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure
SECTION 5
5. Abnormal
and
emergency
procedures
(This section may be combined with
sections 1 through 4)
5.1 Rejected
take-off
at
a
reasonable
speed
5.2 Simulated
engine
failure
after
take-off
(single-engine aeroplane only)
5.3 Simulated
forced
landing
without
power (single-engine aeroplane only)
5.4 Simulated
emergencies:
(i) fire or smoke in flight;
(ii) systems’ malfunctions as appro
priate
5.5 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure
SECTION 6
6. Simulated
asymmetric
flight
(This section may be combined with
sections 1 through 5)
6.1 Simulated
engine
failure
during
take-
off (at a safe altitude unless carried out
in FFS and FNPT II)
6.2 Engine
shutdown
and
restart
(ME
skill
test only)
6.3 Asymmetric
approach
and
go-around
6.4 Asymmetric
approach
and
full
stop
landing
6.5 ATC
liaison
—
Compliance,
R/T
procedure

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L 311/138
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
C. Specific requirements for the helicopter category
1. In case of skill test or proficiency check for type ratings and the ATPL the applicant shall pass sections 1 to 4 and 6
(as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require the applicant to take
the entire test or check again. An applicant failing not more than five items shall take the failed items again. Failure
in any item of the re-test or re-check or failure in any other items already passed will require the applicant to take the
entire test or check again. All sections of the skill test or proficiency check shall be completed within 6 months.
2. In case of proficiency check for an IR the applicant shall pass section 5 of the proficiency check. Failure in more than
three items will require the applicant to take the entire section 5 again. An applicant failing not more than three
items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any item of the re-check or failure in any other items of section 5
already passed will require the applicant to take the entire check again.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the helicopter within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or
manoeuvre is never in doubt;
(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, if applicable; and
(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members, if applicable.
4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and
performance of the aeroplane used.
(a) IFR flight limits
Height:
Generally ±
100
feet
Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 feet/– 0 feet
Minimum descent height/altitude
+ 50 feet/– 0 feet
Tracking:
On radio aids
± 5°
Precision approach
half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/139
Heading:
Normal operations
± 5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies
± 10°
Speed:
Generally ±
10
knots
With simulated engine failure
+ 10 knots/– 5 knots
(b) VFR flight limits
Height:
Generally ±
100
feet
Heading:
Normal operations
± 5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies
± 10°
Speed:
Generally ±
10
knots
With simulated engine failure
+ 10 knots/– 5 knots
Ground drift:
T.O. hover I.G.E.
± 3 feet
Landing
± 2 feet (with 0 feet rearward or lateral flight)
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK
GENERAL
5. The following symbols mean:
P = Trained as PIC for the issue of a type rating for SPH or trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as PF and PNF for the
issue of a type rating for MPH.
6. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted
up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (——>).
The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
FFS = Full Flight Simulator
FTD = Flight Training Device
H =
Helicopter
7. The starred items (*) shall be flown in actual or simulated IMC, only by applicants wishing to renew or revalidate an
IR(H), or extend the privileges of that rating to another type.
8. Instrument flight procedures (section 5) shall be performed only by applicants wishing to renew or revalidate an
IR(H) or extend the privileges of that rating to another type. An FFS or FTD 2/3 may be used for this purpose.
9. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatory exercise.
10. An FSTD shall be used for practical training and testing if the FSTD forms part of a type rating course. The following
considerations will apply to the course:
(i) the qualification of the FSTD as set out in Part-OR;
(ii) the qualifications of the instructor and examiner;
(iii) the amount of FSTD training provided on the course;
(iv) the qualifications and previous experience in similar types of the pilot under training; and

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L 311/140
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
(v) the amount of supervised flying experience provided after the issue of the new type rating.
MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS
11. Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the multi-pilot helicopter type rating and ATPL(H) shall take only sections
1 to 4 and, if applicable, section 6.
12. Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the multi-pilot helicopter type rating proficiency check shall take only
sections 1 to 4 and, if applicable, section 6.
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
H
completed
completed
H
SECTION 1 — Pre-flight preparations and checks
1.1 Helicopter
exterior
visual
M (if
inspection; location of each item
perfor-
and purpose of inspection
P
med in
the heli-
copter)
1.2 Cockpit
inspection
P ——>
M
1.3 Starting
procedures,
radio
and
navigation equipment check,
selection and setting of navi P ——> ——>
M
gation and communication
frequencies
1.4 Taxiing/air
taxiing
in
compliance
with air traffic control
instructions or with instructions
P ——>
M
of an instructor
1.5 Pre-take-off
procedures
and
checks
P ——> ——>
M
SECTION 2 — Flight manoeuvres and procedures
2.1 Take-offs
(various
profiles)
P ——>
M
2.2 Sloping
ground
or
crosswind
take-offs & landings
P ——>
2.3 Take-off
at
maximum
take-off
mass (actual or simulated P ——> ——>
maximum take-off mass)
2.4 Take-off
with
simulated
engine
failure shortly before reaching
P ——>
M
TDP or DPATO
2.4.1 Take-off with simulated engine
failure shortly after reaching TDP
P ——>
M
or DPATO
2.5 Climbing
and
descending
turns
to specified headings
P ——> ——>
M

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/141
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
H
completed
completed
H
2.5.1 Turns with 30° bank, 180° to
360° left and right, by sole P ——> ——>
M
reference to instruments
2.6 Autorotative
descent
P ——> ——>
M
2.6.1 Autorotative landing (SEH only)
or power recovery
P ——>
M
2.7 Landings,
various
profiles
P ——>
M
2.7.1 Go-around or landing following
simulated engine failure before
P ——>
M
LDP or DPBL
2.7.2 Landing following simulated
engine failure after LDP or DPBL
P ——>
M
SECTION 3 — Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures
3. Normal
and
abnormal
A
operations of the following
mandatory
systems and procedures:
minimum
M
of three
items shall
be selected
from this
section
3.1 Engine
P ——> ——>
3.2 Air
conditioning
(heating,
venti
lation)
P ——> ——>
3.3 Pitot/static
system
P ——> ——>
3.4 Fuel
System
P ——> ——>
3.5 Electrical
system
P ——> ——>
3.6 Hydraulic
system
P ——> ——>
3.7 Flight
control
and
Trim
system
P ——> ——>
3.8 Anti-icing
and
de-icing
system
P ——> ——>
3.9 Autopilot/Flight
director
P ——> ——>
3.10 Stability augmentation devices
P ——> ——>

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L 311/142
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
H
completed
completed
H
3.11 Weather radar, radio altimeter,
transponder
P ——> ——>
3.12 Area Navigation System
P ——> ——>
3.13 Landing gear system
P ———> ———>
3.14 Auxiliary power unit
P ——> ——>
3.15 Radio, navigation equipment,
instruments flight management P ——> ——>
system
SECTION 4 — Abnormal and emergency procedures
4. Abnormal
and
emergency
A
procedures
mandatory
minimum
M
of three
items shall
be selected
from this
section
4.1 Fire
drills
(including
evacuation
if applicable)
P ——> ——>
4.2 Smoke
control
and
removal
P ——> ——>
4.3 Engine
failures,
shutdown
and
restart at a safe height
P ——> ——>
4.4 Fuel
dumping
(simulated)
P ——> ——>
4.5 Tail
rotor
control
failure
(if
applicable)
P ——> ——>
4.5.1 Tail rotor loss (if applicable)
Heli
copter
P ——>
may not
be used
for this
exercise
4.6 Incapacitation
of
crew
member
— MPH only
P ——> ——>
4.7 Transmission
malfunctions
P ——> ——>
4.8 Other
emergency
procedures
as
outlined in the appropriate Flight P ——> ——>
Manual

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/143
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
H
completed
completed
H
SECTION 5 — Instrument flight procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC)
5.1 Instrument
take-off:
transition
to
instrument flight is required as
soon as possible after becoming P* ——>* ——>*
airborne
5.1.1 Simulated engine failure during
departure
P* ——>* ——>* M*
5.2 Adherence
to
departure
and
arrival routes and ATC instruc P* ——>* ——>* M*
tions
5.3 Holding
procedures
P* ——>* ——>*
5.4 ILS
approaches
down
to
CAT
I
decision height
P* ——>* ——>*
5.4.1 Manually, without flight director P* ——>* ——>* M*
5.4.2 Precision approach manually,
with or without flight director
P* ——>* ——>* M*
5.4.3 With coupled autopilot
P* ——>* ——>*
5.4.4 Manually, with one engine
simulated inoperative. (Engine
failure has to be simulated
during final approach before
passing the outer marker (OM) P* ——>* ——>* M*
until touchdown or until
completion of the missed
approach procedure)
5.5 Non-precision
approach
down
to the minimum descent altitude P* ——>* ——>* M*
MDA/H
5.6 Go-around
with
all
engines
operating on reaching DA/DH or P* ——>* ——>*
MDA/MDH
5.6.1 Other missed approach
procedures
P* ——>* ——>*
5.6.2 Go-around with one engine
simulated inoperative on
P* M*
reaching DA/DH or MDA/MDH

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L 311/144
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST OR
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor
Chkd in
Examiner
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
FTD FFS
H
completed
completed
H
5.7 IMC
autorotation
with
power
recovery
P* ——>* ——>* M*
5.8 Recovery
from
unusual
attitudes P* ——>* ——>* M*
SECTION 6 — Use of optional equipment
6. Use
of
optional
equipment
P ——> ——>
D. Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category
1. In the case of skill tests or proficiency checks for powered-lift aircraft type ratings, the applicant shall pass sections 1
to 5 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require the
applicant to take the entire test or check again. An applicant failing not more than five items shall take the failed items
again. Failure in any item of the re-test or re-check or failure in any other items already passed will require the
applicant to take the entire test or check again. All sections of the skill test or proficiency check shall be completed
within 6 months.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
2. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the powered-lift aircraft within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(e) maintain control of the powered-lift aircraft at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a
procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;
(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and
(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members.
3. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and
performance of the powered-lift aircraft used.
(a) IFR flight limits:
Height:
Generally ±
100
feet
Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 feet/– 0 feet
Minimum descent height/altitude
+ 50 feet/– 0 feet

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/145
Tracking:
On radio aids
± 5°
Precision approach
half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path
Heading:
Normal operations
± 5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies
± 10°
Speed:
Generally ±
10
knots
With simulated engine failure
+ 10 knots/– 5 knots
(b) VFR flight limits:
Height:
Generally ±
100
feet
Heading:
Normal operations
± 5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies ± 10°
Speed:
Generally ±
10
knots
With simulated engine failure
+ 10 knots/– 5 knots
Ground drift:
T.O. hover I.G.E.
± 3 feet
Landing
± 2 feet (with 0 feet rearward or lateral flight)
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK
4. The following symbols mean:
P = Trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as PF and PNF for the issue of a type rating as applicable.
5. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up
to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (——>).
6. The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
FFS = Full Flight Simulator
FTD = Flight Training Device
OTD = Other Training Device
PL =
Powered-lift
aircraft
(a) Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the powered-lift aircraft type rating shall take sections 1 to 5 and, if
applicable, section 6.
(b) Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the powered-lift aircraft type rating proficiency check shall take
sections 1 to 5 and, if applicable section 6 and/or 7.
(c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not met during the skill
test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only.

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L 311/146
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Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
7. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatory exercise.
8. Flight Simulation Training Devices shall be used for practical training and testing if they form part of an approved type
rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course:
(a) the qualification of the flight simulation training devices as set out in Part-OR;
(b) the qualifications of the instructor.
POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT
CATEGORY
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS PL
completed
completed
PL
SECTION 1 — Pre-flight preparations and checks
1.1 Powered-lift
aircraft
exterior visual
inspection;
P
location of each item
and purpose of
inspection
1.2 Cockpit
inspection
P ——> ——> ——>
1.3 Starting
procedures,
radio and navigation
equipment check,
selection and setting
P ——> ——> ——>
M
of navigation and
communication
frequencies
1.4 Taxiing
in
compliance
with air traffic control
instructions or with
P ——> ——>
instructions of an
instructor
1.5 Pre-take-off
procedures and
checks including
P ——> ——> ——>
M
Power Check
SECTION 2 — Flight manoeuvres and procedures
2.1 Normal
VFR
take-off
profiles;
Runway operations
(STOL and VTOL)
including crosswind
P ——> ——>
M
Elevated heliports
Ground level
heliports
2.2 Take-off
at
maximum
take-off mass (actual
or simulated
P ——>
maximum take-off
mass)

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/147
POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT
CATEGORY
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS PL
completed
completed
PL
2.3.1 Rejected take-off:
during runway
operations
during elevated
P ——>
M
heliport operations
during ground level
operations
2.3.2 Take-off with
simulated engine
failure after passing
decision point:
during runway
operations
P ——>
M
during elevated
heliport operations
during ground level
operations
2.4 Autorotative
descent
in helicopter mode to
M
ground (an aircraft
P ——> ——>
FFS
shall not be used for
only
this exercise)
2.4.1 Windmill descent in
aeroplane mode (an
M
aircraft shall not be
P ——>
FFS
used for this exercise)
only
2.5 Normal
VFR
landing
profiles;
runway operations
(STOL and VTOL)
P ——> ——>
M
elevated heliports
ground level heliports
2.5.1 Landing with
simulated engine
failure after reaching
decision point:
during runway
operations
during elevated
heliport operations
during ground level
operations

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L 311/148
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT
CATEGORY
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS PL
completed
completed
PL
2.6 Go-around
or
landing
following simulated
engine failure before
P ——>
M
decision point
SECTION 3 — Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures:
3. Normal
and
abnormal
A
operations of the
mandatory
following systems and
minimum
procedures (may be
of three
M
completed in an
items shall
FSTD if qualified for
be selected
the exercise):
from this
section
3.1 Engine
P ——> ——>
3.2 Pressurisation
and
air
conditioning (heating, P ——> ——>
ventilation)
3.3 Pitot/static
system
P ——> ——>
3.4 Fuel
System
P ——> ——>
3.5 Electrical
system
P ——> ——>
3.6 Hydraulic
system
P ——> ——>
3.7 Flight
control
and
Trim-system
P ——> ——>
3.8 Anti-icing
and
de-
icing system, glare
shield heating (if
P ——> ——>
fitted)
3.9 Autopilot/Flight
director
P —> —>

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/149
POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT
CATEGORY
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS PL
completed
completed
PL
3.10 Stall warning devices
or stall avoidance
devices and stability
P ——> ——>
augmentation devices
3.11 Weather radar, radio
altimeter,
transponder, ground
P ——> ——>
proximity warning
system (if fitted)
3.12 Landing gear system
P ———> ———>
3.13 Auxiliary power unit
P ——> ——>
3.14 Radio, navigation
equipment,
instruments and flight P ——> ——>
management system
3.15 Flap system
P ——> ——>
SECTION 4 — Abnormal and emergency procedures
4. Abnormal
and
A
emergency procedures
mandatory
(may be completed in
minimum
an FSTD if qualified
of three
M
for the exercise)
items shall
be selected
from this
section
4.1 Fire
drills,
engine,
APU, cargo
compartment, flight
deck and electrical
P ——> ——>
fires including
evacuation if
applicable
4.2 Smoke
control
and
removal
P ——> ——>
4.3 Engine
failures,
shutdown and restart
(an aircraft shall not
be used for this
exercise) including
P ——> ——>
FFS
only
OEI conversion from
helicopter to
aeroplane modes and
vice versa

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L 311/150
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT
CATEGORY
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS PL
completed
completed
PL
4.4 Fuel
dumping
(simulated, if fitted)
P ——> ——>
4.5 Wind
shear
at
take-
off and landing (an
aircraft shall not be
P
FFS
only
used for this exercise)
4.6 Simulated
cabin
pressure
failure/emergency
descent (an aircraft
P ——> ——>
FFS
only
shall not be used for
this exercise)
4.7 ACAS
event
(an aircraft shall not
P ——> ——>
FFS
be used for this
only
exercise)
4.8 Incapacitation
of
crew
member
P ——> ——>
4.9 Transmission
malfunctions
P ——> ——>
FFS
only
4.10 Recovery from a full
stall (power on and
off) or after activation
of stall warning
devices in climb,
P ——> ——>
FFS
cruise and approach
only
configurations (an
aircraft shall not be
used for this exercise)
4.11 Other emergency
procedures as detailed
in the appropriate
P ——> ——>
Flight Manual
SECTION 5 — Instrument flight procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC)
5.1 Instrument
take-off:
transition to
instrument flight is
required as soon as
P* ——>* ——>*
possible after
becoming airborne
5.1.1 Simulated engine
failure during
departure after
P* ——>* ——>* M*
decision point

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/151
POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT
CATEGORY
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS PL
completed
completed
PL
5.2 Adherence
to
departure and arrival
routes and ATC
P* ——>* ——>* M*
instructions
5.3 Holding
procedures
P* ——>* ——>*
5.4 Precision
approach
down to a decision
height not less than
P* ——>* ——>*
60 m (200 ft)
5.4.1 Manually, without
M*
flight director
P* ——>* ——>*
(Skill test
only)
5.4.2 Manually, with flight
director
P* ——>* ——>*
5.4.3 With use of autopilot P* ——>* ——>*
5.4.4 Manually, with one
engine simulated
inoperative; engine
failure has to be
simulated during final
approach before
passing the outer
marker (OM) and
P* ——>* ——>* M*
continued either to
touchdown, or
through to the
completion of the
missed approach
procedure)
5.5 Non-precision
approach down to the
minimum descent
P* ——>* ——>* M*
altitude MDA/H
5.6 Go-around
with
all
engines operating on
reaching DA/DH or
P* ——>* ——>*
MDA/MDH
5.6.1 Other missed
approach procedures
P* ——>* ——>*
5.6.2 Go-around with one
engine simulated
inoperative on
P* M*
reaching DA/DH or
MDA/MDH

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L 311/152
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT
CATEGORY
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS PL
completed
completed
PL
5.7 IMC
autorotation
with power recovery
to land on runway in
M*
helicopter mode only P* ——>* ——>*
FFS
(an aircraft shall not
only
be used for this
exercise)
5.8 Recovery
from
unusual attitudes (this
one depends on the
P* ——>* ——>* M*
quality of the FFS)
SECTION 6 — Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of
less than 60 m (CAT II/III)
6. Additional
authorisation on a
type rating for
instrument
approaches down to a
decision height of less
than 60 m (CAT
II/III).
The following
manoeuvres and
procedures are the
minimum training
requirements to permit
instrument approaches
down to a DH of less
than 60 m (200 ft).
During the following
instrument approaches
and missed approach
procedures all
powered-lift aircraft
equipment required for
the type certification of
instrument approaches
down to a DH of less
than 60 m (200 ft)
shall be used
6.1 Rejected
take-off
at
minimum authorised
P ——> M*
RVR
6.2 ILS
approaches
in simulated
instrument flight
conditions down to
the applicable DH,
using flight guidance
P ——> ——> M*
system. Standard
procedures of crew
coordination (SOPs)
shall be observed

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/153
POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT
CATEGORY
PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS PL
completed
PL
completed
6.3 Go-around
after approaches as
indicated in 6.2 on
reaching DH. The
training shall also
include a go-around
due to (simulated)
insufficient RVR,
wind shear, aircraft
deviation in excess of
P ——> ——> M*
approach limits for a
successful approach,
ground/airborne
equipment failure
prior to reaching DH,
and go-around with
simulated airborne
equipment failure
6.4 Landing(s)
with
visual
reference established
at DH following an
instrument approach.
Depending on the
P ——> M*
specific flight
guidance system, an
automatic landing
shall be performed
SECTION 7 — Optional equipment
7. Use
of
optional
equipment
P ——> ——>
E. Specific requirements for the airship category
1. In the case of skill tests or proficiency checks for airship type ratings the applicant shall pass sections 1 to 5 and 6 (as
applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require the applicant to take the
entire test/check again. An applicant failing not more than five items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any
item of the re-test/re-check or failure in any other items already passed will require the applicant to take the entire
test/check again. All sections of the skill test or proficiency check shall be completed within 6 months.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
2. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(i) operate the airship within its limitations;
(ii) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(iii) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

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L 311/154
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
(iv) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(v) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or
manoeuvre is never in doubt;
(vi) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and
(vii) communicate effectively with the other crew members.
3. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and
performance of the airship used.
(a) IFR
flight
limits:
Height:
Generally ±
100
feet
Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 feet/– 0 feet
Minimum descent height/altitude
+ 50 feet/– 0 feet
Tracking:
On radio aids
± 5°
Precision approach
half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path
Heading:
Normal operations
± 5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies
± 10°
(b) VFR flight limits:
Height:
Generally ±
100
feet
Heading:
Normal operations
± 5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies
± 10°
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK
4. The following symbols mean:
P = Trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as PF and PNF for the issue of a type rating as applicable.
5. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up
to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (——>).

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/155
6. The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
FFS = Full Flight Simulator
FTD = Flight Training Device
OTD = Other Training Device
As =
Airship
(a) Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the airship shall take sections 1 to 5 and, if applicable, section 6.
(b) Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the airship type rating proficiency check shall take sections 1 to 5
and, if applicable section 6.
(c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not met during the skill
test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only.
7. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatory exercise.
8. Flight Simulation Training Devices shall be used for practical training and testing if they form part of a type rating
course. The following considerations will apply to the a course:
(a) the qualification of the flight simulation training devices as set out in Part-OR;
(b) the qualifications of the instructor.
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS As
completed
As
completed
SECTION 1 — Pre-flight preparations and checks
1.1 Pre-flight
inspection
P
1.2 Cockpit
inspection
P ——> ——> ——>
1.3 Starting
procedures,
radio and navigation
equipment check,
selection and setting
P ——> ——>
M
of navigation and
communication
frequencies
1.4 Off
Mast
procedure
and Ground
P ——>
M
Manoeuvring

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L 311/156
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS As
completed
As
completed
1.5 Pre-take-off
procedures and
P ——> ——> ——>
M
checks
SECTION 2 — Flight manoeuvres and procedures
2.1 Normal
VFR
take-off
profile
P ——>
M
2.2 Take-off
with
simulated engine
P ——>
M
failure
2.3 Take-off
with
heaviness > 0 (Heavy
P ——>
T/O)
2.4 Take-off
with
heaviness < 0
P ——>
(Light/TO)
2.5 Normal
climb
procedure
P ——>
2.6 Climb
to
Pressure
Height
P ——>
2.7 Recognising
of
Pressure Height
P ——>
2.8 Flight
at
or
close
to
Pressure Height
P ——>
M
2.9 Normal
descent
and
approach
P ——>
2.10 Normal VFR landing
profile
P ——>
M
2.11 Landing with
heaviness > 0 (Heavy
P ——>
M
Ldg.)
2.12 Landing with
heaviness < 0 (Light
P ——>
M
Ldg.)
Intentionally left blank

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/157
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS As
completed
As
completed
SECTION 3 — Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures
3. Normal
and
abnormal
A
operations of the
mandatory
following systems and
minimum
procedures (may be
of three
completed in an
M
items shall
FSTD if qualified for
be selected
the exercise):
from this
section
3.1 Engine
P ——> ——> ——>
3.2 Envelope
Pressurisation
P ——> ——> ——>
3.3 Pitot/static
system
P ——> ——> ——>
3.4 Fuel
system
P ——> ——> ——>
3.5 Electrical
system
P ——> ——> ——>
3.6 Hydraulic
system
P ——> ——> ——>
3.7 Flight
control
and
Trim-system
P ——> ——> ——>
3.8 Ballonet
system
P ——> ——> ——>
3.9 Autopilot/Flight
director
P —> —> ——>
3.10 Stability
augmentation devices P ——> ——> ——>
3.11 Weather radar, radio
altimeter,
transponder, ground
P ——> ——> ——>
proximity warning
system (if fitted)
3.12 Landing gear system
P ———> ———> ——>

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L 311/158
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS As
completed
As
completed
3.13 Auxiliary power unit
P ——> ——> ——>
3.14 Radio, navigation
equipment,
instruments and flight P ——> ——> ——>
management system
Intentionally left blank
SECTION 4 — Abnormal and emergency procedures
4. Abnormal
and
A
emergency procedures
mandatory
(may be completed in
minimum
an FSTD if qualified
of three
M
for the exercise)
items shall
be selected
from this
section
4.1 Fire
drills,
engine,
APU, cargo
compartment, flight
deck and electrical
P ——> ——> ——>
fires including
evacuation if
applicable
4.2 Smoke
control
and
removal
P ——> ——> ——>
4.3 Engine
failures,
shutdown and restart
In particular phases of
flight, inclusive
P ——> ——> ——>
multiple engine
failure
4.4 Incapacitation
of
crew
member
P ——> ——> ——>
4.5 Transmission/Gearbox
malfunctions
P ——> ——> ——>
FFS
only
4.6 Other
emergency
procedures as
outlined in the
P ——> ——> ——>
appropriate Flight
Manual

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/159
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS As
completed
As
completed
SECTION 5 — Instrument flight procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC)
5.1 Instrument
take-off:
transition to
instrument flight is
required as soon as
P* ——>* ——>* ——>*
possible after
becoming airborne
5.1.1 Simulated engine
failure during
P* ——>* ——>* ——>* M*
departure
5.2 Adherence
to
departure and arrival
routes and ATC
P* ——>* ——>* ——>* M*
instructions
5.3 Holding
procedures
P* ——>* ——>* ——>*
5.4 Precision
approach
down to a decision
height not less than
P* ——>* ——>* ——>*
60 m (200 ft)
5.4.1 Manually, without
M*
flight director
P* ——>* ——>* ——>*
(Skill test
only)
5.4.2 Manually, with flight
director
P* ——>* ——>* ——>*
5.4.3 With use of autopilot P* ——>* ——>* ——>*
5.4.4 Manually, with one
engine simulated
inoperative; engine
failure has to be
simulated during final
approach before
passing the outer
P* ——>* ——>* ——>* M*
marker (OM) and
continued to
touchdown, or until
completion of the
missed approach
procedure
5.5 Non-precision
approach down to the
minimum descent
P* ——>* ——>* ——>* M*
altitude MDA/H

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L 311/160
EN
Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS As
completed
As
completed
5.6 Go-around
with
all
engines operating on
reaching DA/DH or
P* ——>* ——>* ——>*
MDA/MDH
5.6.1 Other missed
approach procedures
P* ——>* ——>* ——>*
5.6.2 Go-around with one
engine simulated
inoperative on
P* M*
reaching DA/DH or
MDA/MDH
5.7 Recovery
from
unusual attitudes
(this one depends on P* ——>* ——>* ——>* M*
the quality of the FFS)
SECTION 6 — Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of
less than 60 m (CAT II/III)
6. Additional
authorisation on a
type rating for
instrument
approaches down to a
decision height of less
than 60 m (CAT
II/III).
The following
manoeuvres and
procedures are the
minimum training
requirements to
permit instrument
approaches down to a
DH of less than 60 m
(200 ft). During the
following instrument
approaches and
missed approach
procedures all airship
equipment required
for the type
certification of
instrument
approaches down to a
DH of less than 60 m
(200 ft) shall be used.

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/161
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS As
completed
As
completed
6.1 Rejected
take-off
at
minimum authorised
P ——> M*
RVR
6.2 ILS
approaches
In simulated
instrument flight
conditions down to
the applicable DH,
using flight guidance
P ——> M*
system. Standard
procedures of crew
coordination (SOPs)
shall be observed
6.3 Go-around
After approaches as
indicated in 6.2 on
reaching DH.
The training shall also
include a go-around
due to (simulated)
insufficient RVR,
wind shear, aircraft
P ——> M*
deviation in excess of
approach limits for a
successful approach,
and ground/airborne
equipment failure
prior to reaching DH
and, go-around with
simulated airborne
equipment failure.
6.4 Landing(s)
With visual reference
established at DH
following an
instrument approach.
Depending on the
P ——> M*
specific flight
guidance system, an
automatic landing
shall be performed

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L 311/162
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Official Journal of the European Union
25.11.2011
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL
TRAINING
SKILL TEST
ORPROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s
Chkd in
Examiner’s
Manoeuvres/Procedures
initials when
initials when
training
FFS
test
OTD FTD FFS As
completed
As
completed
SECTION 7 — Optional equipment
7. Use
of
optional
equipment
P ——>

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
Journal
of
the
European
Union L
311/163
ANNEX II
CONDITIONS FOR THE CONVERSION OF EXISTING NATIONAL LICENCES AND RATINGS FOR
AEROPLANES AND HELICOPTERS
A. AEROPLANES
1. Pilot licences
A pilot licence issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a Part-
FCL licence provided that the applicant complies with the following requirements:
(a) for ATPL(A) and CPL(A), complete as a proficiency check the revalidation requirements of Part-FCL for type/class
and instrument rating, relevant to the privileges of the licence held;
(b) demonstrate knowledge of the relevant parts of Part-OPS and Part-FCL;
(c) demonstrate language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;
(d) comply with the requirements set out in the table below:
Replacement Part-FCL
National licence held
Total flying hours
Any further
experience
requirements
licence and conditions Removal of conditions
(where applicable)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
ATPL(A) >
1
500
as
PIC
on
None ATPL(A) Not
applicable (a)
multi-pilot
aeroplanes
ATPL(A) >
1
500
on
multi-
None as
in
(c)(4) as
in
(c)(5) (b)
pilot aeroplanes
ATPL(A) >
500
on
multi-
Demonstrate
ATPL(A), with type Demonstrate
(c)
pilot aeroplanes
knowledge of flight rating restricted to ability to act as
planning and
co-pilot
PIC as required by
performance as
Appendix 9 to
required by FCL.515
Part-FCL
CPL/IR(A) and
(i) demonstrate
CPL/IR(A) with
Not applicable (d)
passed an ICAO
knowledge of
ATPL theory credit
ATPL theory test
flight planning
in the Member
and
State of licence
performance as
issue
required by
FCL.310 and
FCL.615(b)
(ii) meet remaining
requirements of
FCL.720.A(c)
CPL/IR(A) >
500
on
multi-
(i) pass an
CPL/IR(A) with
Not applicable (e)
pilot aeroplanes, or
examination for ATPL theory credit
in multi-pilot
ATPL(A)
operations on
knowledge in
single-pilot
the Member
aeroplanes CS-23
State of licence
commuter
issue (*)
category or
(ii) meet remaining
equivalent in
requirements of
accordance with
FCL.720.A(c)
the requirements
of Part-OPS for
commercial air
transport

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L 311/164
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Official Journal of the European Union
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(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
CPL/IR(A) >
500
as
PIC
on
None CPL/IR(A)
with
(f)
single-pilot
type/class ratings
aeroplanes
restricted to single-
pilot aeroplanes
CPL/IR(A) <
500
as
PIC
on
Demonstrate
As (4)(f) Obtain
multi-pilot
(g)
single-pilot
knowledge of flight
type rating in
aeroplanes
planning and flight
accordance with
performance for
Part-FCL
CPL/IR level
CPL(A) >
500
as
PIC
on
Night rating, if
CPL(A), with
(h)
single-pilot
applicable
type/class ratings
aeroplanes
restricted to single-
pilot aeroplanes
CPL(A) <
500
as
PIC
on
(i) Night rating, if as (4)(h) (i)
single-pilot
applicable;
aeroplanes
(ii) demonstrate
knowledge of
flight
performance
and planning as
required by
FCL.310
PPL/IR(A)
≥ 75 in accordance Night rating if night PPL/IR(A) (the IR
Demonstrate
(j)
with IFR
flying privileges are restricted to PPL)
knowledge of
not included in the
flight performance
instrument rating
and planning as
required by
FCL.615(b)
PPL(A)
≥ 70 on
Demonstrate the use PPL(A) (k)
aeroplanes
of radio navigation
aids
(*) CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane are not required to have passed an examination for
ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same aeroplane type, but will not be given ATPL(A) theory
credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot aeroplane, they must comply with
column (3), row (e)(i) of the above table.
2. Instructor certificates
An instructor certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted
into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the applicant complies with the following requirements:
National certificate or
privileges held
Experience Any
further
requirements
Replacement Part-FCL
certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
FI(A)/IRI(A)/TRI(A)/
as required under Part- N/A FI(A)/IRI(A)/TRI(A)/
CRI(A)
FCL for the relevant
CRI(A)
certificate

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EN
25.11.2011 Official
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Union L
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3. SFI certificate
An SFI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a
Part-FCL certificate provided that the holder complies with the following requirements:
National certificate held Experience Any
further
requirements
Replacement Part-FCL
certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
SFI(A) >
1
500
hours
as
pilot
(i) hold or have held a CPL, MPL or SFI(A)
of MPA
ATPL for aeroplanes issued by a
Member State;
(ii) have completed the flight
simulator content of the
applicable type rating course
including MCC.
SFI(A) 3
years’
recent
have completed the flight simulator SFI(A)
experience as an SFI
content of the applicable type rating
course including MCC
The conversion shall be valid for a maximum period of 3 years. Revalidation shall be subject to the completion of the
relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL.
4. STI certificate
An STI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements of that State may be
converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the holder complies with the requirements set out in the table
below:
National certificate held Experience Any
further
requirements Replacement
certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
STI(A) >
500
hours
as
pilot
(i) hold or have held a pilot licence STI(A)
on SPA
issued by a Member State;
(ii) have completed a proficiency
check in accordance with
Appendix 9 to Part-FCL in an
FSTD appropriate to the
instruction intended
STI(A) 3
years’
recent
have completed a proficiency check STI(A)
experience as an STI
in accordance with Appendix 9 to
Part-FCL in an FSTD appropriate to
the instruction intended
Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL.
B. HELICOPTERS
1. Pilot licences
A pilot licence issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a Part-
FCL licence provided that the applicant complies with the following requirements:
(a) complete as a proficiency check the revalidation requirements of Part-FCL for type and instrument rating, relevant
to the privileges of the licence held;
(b) demonstrate knowledge of the relevant parts of Part-OPS and Part-FCL;
(c) demonstrate language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;

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(d) comply with the requirements set out in the table below:
Replacement Part-FCL
National licence held
Total flying hours
Any further
experience
requirements
licence and conditions Removal of conditions
(where applicable)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
ATPL(H) valid
> 1 000 as PIC on none ATPL(H)
and
IR Not
applicable (a)
IR(H)
multi-pilot
helicopters
ATPL(H) no IR(H) > 1 000 as PIC on none ATPL(H) (b)
privileges
multi-pilot
helicopters
ATPL(H) valid
> 1 000 on multi- None ATPL(H),
and
IR
demonstrate ability (c)
IR(H)
pilot helicopters
with type rating
to act as PIC as
restricted to co-
required by
pilot
Appendix 9 to
Part-FCL
ATPL(H) no IR(H) > 1 000 on multi- None ATPL(H)
type
demonstrate ability (d)
privileges
pilot helicopters
rating restricted to to act as PIC as
co-pilot
required by
Appendix 9 to
Part-FCL
ATPL(H) valid
> 500 on multi-
demonstrate
as (4)(c) as
(5)(c) (e)
IR(H)
pilot helicopters
knowledge of flight
planning and flight
performance as
required by FCL.515
and FCL.615(b)
ATPL(H) no IR(H) > 500 on multi-
as (3)(e) as
(4)(d) as
(5)(d) (f)
privileges
pilot helicopters
CPL/IR(H) and
(i) demonstrate
CPL/IR(H) with
Not applicable (g)
passed an ICAO
knowledge of
ATPL(H) theory
ATPL(H) theory
flight planning
credit, provided
test in the
and flight
that the ICAO
Member State of
performance as ATPL(H) theory
licence issue
required by
test is assessed as
FCL.310 and
being at Part-FCL
FCL.615(b);
ATPL level
(ii) meet remaining
requirements of
FCL.720.H(b)
CPL/IR(H) >
500
hrs
on
(i) to pass an
CPL/IR(H) with
Not applicable (h)
multi-pilot
examination for Part-FCL ATPL(H)
helicopters
Part-FCL
theory credit
ATPL(H)
theoretical
knowledge in
the Member
State of licence
issue (*)
(ii) to meet
remaining
requirements of
FCL.720.H(b)

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(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
CPL/IR(H) >
500
as
PIC
on
None CPL/IR(H)
with
obtain multi-pilot (i)
single-pilot
type ratings
type rating as
helicopters
restricted to single- required by Part-
pilot helicopters
FCL
CPL/IR(H) <
500
as
PIC
on
demonstrate
as (4)(i) (j)
single-pilot
knowledge of flight
helicopters
planning and flight
performance as
required by FCL.310
and FCL.615(b)
CPL(H) >
500
as
PIC
on
night rating CPL(H),
with
type
(k)
single-pilot
ratings restricted to
helicopters
single-pilot
helicopters
CPL(H) <
500
as
PIC
on
night rating
as (4) (k) (l)
single-pilot
demonstrate
helicopters
knowledge of flight
performance and
planning as required
by FCL.310
CPL(H)
> 500 as PIC on
As (4)(k) and
Obtain multi-pilot (m)
Without night
single-pilot
restricted to day
type rating as
rating
helicopters
VFR operations
required by Part-
FCL and a night
rating
CPL(H)
< 500 as PIC on
demonstrate
As (4)(k) and
(n)
Without night
single-pilot
knowledge of flight restricted to day
rating
helicopters
planning and flight VFR operations
performance as
required by FCL.310
PPL/IR(H)
≥ 75 in accordance night rating; if night PPL/IR(H) (the IR
demonstrate
(o)
with IFR
flying privileges are restricted to PPL)
knowledge of
not included in the
flight performance
instrument rating
and planning as
required by
FCL.615(b)
PPL(H)
≥ 75 on
demonstrate the use PPL (H) (p)
helicopters
of radio navigation
aids
(*) CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane are not required to have passed an examination for
ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same helicopter type, but will not be given ATPL(H) theory
credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot helicopter, they must comply with
column (3), row (h)(i) of the above table.
2. Instructor certificates
An instructor certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted
into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the applicant complies with the following requirements:

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National certificate or
privileges held
Experience Any
further
requirements Replacement
certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
FI(H)/IRI(H)/TRI(H) as
required
under
Part-
FI(H)/IRI(H)/TRI(H) (*)
FCL for the relevant
certificate
Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL.
3. SFI certificate
An SFI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a
Part-FCL certificate provided that the holder complies with the following requirements:
National certificate held Experience Any
further
requirements Replacement
certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
SFI(H) >
1
000
hours
as
pilot
(i) hold or have held a CPL, MPL or SFI(H)
of MPH
ATPL issued by a Member State;
(ii) have completed the flight
simulator content of the
applicable type rating course
including MCC
SFI(H) 3
years’
recent
have completed the simulator
SFI(H)
experience as an SFI
content of the applicable type rating
course including MCC
Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL.
4. STI certificate
An STI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements of that State may be
converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the holder complies with the requirements set out in the table
below:
National certificate held Experience Any
further
requirements Replacement
certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
STI(H) >
500
hours
as
pilot
(i) hold or have held a pilot licence STI(H)
on SPH
issued by a Member State;
(ii) have completed a proficiency
check in accordance with
Appendix 9 to Part-FCL in an
FSTD appropriate to the
instruction intended
STI(H) 3
years’
recent
have completed a proficiency check STI(H)
experience as an STI
in accordance with Appendix 9 to
Part-FCL in an FSTD appropriate to
the instruction intended
Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL.

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ANNEX III
CONDITIONS FOR THE ACCEPTANCE OF LICENCES ISSUED BY OR ON BEHALF OF THIRD COUNTRIES
A. VALIDATION OF LICENCES
General
1. A pilot licence issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country
may be validated by the competent authority of a Member State.
Pilots shall apply to the competent authority of the Member State where they reside or are established, or, if they are
not residing in the territory of the Member States, where the operator for which they are flying or intend to fly has its
principal place of business.
2. The period of validation of a licence shall not exceed 1 year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
This period may only be extended once by the competent authority that issued the validation when, during the
validation period, the pilot has applied, or is undergoing training, for the issuance of a licence in accordance with
Part-FCL. This extension shall cover the period of time necessary for the licence to be issued in accordance with
Part-FCL.
The holders of a licence accepted by a Member State shall exercise their privileges in accordance with the requirements
stated in Part-FCL.
Pilot licences for commercial air transport and other commercial activities
3. In the case of pilot licences for commercial air transport and other commercial activities, the holder shall comply with
the following requirements:
(a) complete, as a skill test, the type or class rating revalidation requirements of Part-FCL relevant to the privileges of
the licence held;
(b) demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of the relevant parts of Part-OPS and Part-FCL;
(c) demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of English in accordance with FCL.055;
(d) hold a valid Class 1 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-Medical;
(e) in the case of aeroplanes, comply with the experience requirements set out in the following table:
Licence held Total
flying
hours
experience Privileges
(1) (2) (3)
ATPL(A) >
1
500
hours
as
PIC
on
multi-
Commercial air transport in multi- (a)
pilot aeroplanes
pilot aeroplanes as PIC
ATPL(A) or CPL(A)/IR (*) >
1
500
hours
as
PIC
or
co-pilot
Commercial air transport in multi- (b)
on multi-pilot aeroplanes
pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot
according to operational
requirements
CPL(A)/IR >
1
000
hours
as
PIC
in
Commercial air transport in
(c)
commercial air transport since
single-pilot aeroplanes as PIC
gaining an IR
CPL(A)/IR >
1
000
hours
as
PIC
or
as
Commercial air transport in
(d)
co-pilot in single-pilot aeroplanes single-pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot
according to operational
according to Part-OPS
requirements
ATPL(A), CPL (A)/IR, CPL(A) >
700
hours
in
aeroplanes
other Exercise of privileges in aeroplanes (e)
than TMGs, including 200 hours in operations other than
in the activity role for which
commercial air transport
acceptance is sought, and 50
hours in that role in the last 12
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(1) (2) (3)
CPL(A) >
1
500
hours
as
PIC
in
Commercial air transport in
(f)
commercial air transport including single-pilot aeroplanes as PIC
500 hours on seaplane operations
(*) CPL(A)/IR holders on multi-pilot aeroplanes shall have demonstrated ICAO ATPL(A) level knowledge before acceptance.
(f) in the case of helicopters, comply with the experience requirements set out in the following table:
Licence held Total
flying
hours
experience Privileges
(1) (2) (3)
ATPL(H) valid IR >
1
000
hours
as
PIC
on
multi-
Commercial air transport in multi- (a)
pilot helicopters
pilot helicopters as PIC in VFR and
IFR operations
ATPL(H) no IR privileges >
1
000
hours
as
PIC
on
multi-
Commercial air transport in multi- (b)
pilot helicopters
pilot helicopters as PIC in VFR
operations
ATPL(H) valid IR >
1
000
hours
as
pilot
on
multi-
Commercial air transport in multi- (c)
pilot helicopters
pilot helicopters as co-pilot in VFR
and IFR operations
ATPL(H) no IR privileges >
1
000
hours
as
pilot
on
multi-
Commercial air transport in multi- (d)
pilot helicopters
pilot helicopters as co-pilot in VFR
operations
CPL(H)/IR (*) >
1
000
hours
as
pilot
on
multi-
Commercial air transport in multi- (e)
pilot helicopters
pilot helicopters as co-pilot
CPL(H)/IR >
1
000
hours
as
PIC
in
Commercial air transport in
(f)
commercial air transport since
single-pilot helicopters as PIC
gaining an IR
ATPL(H) with or without IR > 700 hours in helicopters other
Exercise of privileges in helicopters (g)
privileges, CPL(H)/IR, CPL(H)
than those certificated under
in operations other than
CS-27/29 or equivalent, including commercial air transport
200 hours in the activity role for
which acceptance is sought, and
50 hours in that role in the last
12 months
(*) CPL(H)/IR holders on multi-pilot helicopters shall have demonstrated ICAO ATPL level knowledge before acceptance.
Pilot licences for non-commercial activities with an instrument rating
4. In the case of private pilot licences with an instrument rating, or CPL and ATPL licences with an instrument rating
where the pilot intends only to exercise private pilot privileges, the holder shall comply with the following
requirements:
(a) complete the skill test for instrument rating and the type or class ratings relevant to the privileges of the licence
held, in accordance with Appendix 7 and Appendix 9 to Part-FCL;
(b) demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of Air Law, Aeronautical Weather Codes, Flight Planning and
Performance (IR), and Human Performance;
(c) demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of English in accordance with FCL.055;
(d) hold at least a valid Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;
(e) have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours of instrument flight time as pilot-in-command in the relevant
category of aircraft.

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Pilot licences for non-commercial activities without an instrument rating
5. In the case of private pilot licences, or CPL and ATPL licences without an instrument rating where the pilot intends
only to exercise private pilot privileges, the holder shall comply with the following requirements:
(a) demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of Air Law and Human Performance;
(b) pass the PPL skill test as set out in Part-FCL;
(c) fulfil the relevant requirements of Part-FCL for the issuance of a type or class rating as relevant to the privileges of
the licence held;
(d) hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;
(e) demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;
(f) have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours as pilot in the relevant category of aircraft.
Validation of pilot licences for specific tasks of limited duration
6. Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, in the case of manufacturer flights, Member States may
accept a licence issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country for a maximum of
12 months for specific tasks of limited duration, such as instruction flights for initial entry into service, demonstration,
ferry or test flights, provided the applicant complies with the following requirements:
(a) holds an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued in accordance
with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;
(b) is employed, directly or indirectly, by an aeroplane manufacturer.
In this case, the privileges of the holder shall be limited to performing flight instruction and testing for initial issue of
type ratings, the supervision of initial line flying by the operators’ pilots, delivery or ferry flights, initial line flying,
flight demonstrations or test flights.
B. CONVERSION OF LICENCES
1. A PPL/BPL/SPL, a CPL or ATPL licence issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago
Convention by a third country may be converted into a Part-FCL PPL/BPL/SPL with a single-pilot class or type
rating by the competent authority of a Member State.
The pilot shall apply to the competent authority of the Member State where he/she resides or is established.
2. The holder of the licence shall comply with the following minimum requirements, for the relevant aircraft category:
(a) pass a written examination in Air Law and Human Performance;
(b) pass the PPL, BPL or SPL skill test, as relevant, in accordance with Part-FCL;
(c) fulfil the requirements for the issue of the relevant class or type rating, in accordance with Subpart H;
(d) hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-Medical;
(e) demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;
(f) have completed at least 100 hours of flight time as a pilot.
C. ACCEPTANCE OF CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS
1. A valid class or type rating contained in a licence issued by a third country may be inserted in a Part-FCL licence
provided that the applicant:
(a) complies with the experience requirements and the prerequisites for the issue of the applicable type or class rating
in accordance with Part-FCL;
(b) passes the relevant skill test for the issue of the applicable type or class rating in accordance with Part-FCL;
(c) is in current flying practice;

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(d) has no less than:
(i) for aeroplane class ratings, 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that class;
(ii) for aeroplane type ratings, 500 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that type;
(iii) for single-engine helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of up to 3 175 kg, 100 hours of flight
experience as a pilot in that type;
(iv) for all other helicopters, 350 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that class.

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ANNEX IV
[PART-MED]
SUBPART A
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
SECTION 1
General
MED.A.001 Competent authority
For the purpose of this Part, the competent authority shall be:
(a) for aero-medical centres (AeMC):
(1) the authority designated by the Member State where the AeMC has its principal place of business;
(2) where the AeMC is located in a third country, the Agency;
(b) for aero-medical examiners (AME):
(1) the authority designated by the Member State where the AMEs have their principal place of practice;
(2) if the principal place of practice of an AME is located in a third country, the authority designated by the Member
State to which the AME applies for the issue of the AME certificate;
(c) for general medical practitioners (GMP), the authority designated by the Member State to which the GMP notifies
his/her activity;
(d) for occupational health medical practitioners (OHMP) assessing the medical fitness of cabin crew, the authority
designated by the Member State to which the OHMP notifies his/her activity.
MED.A.005 Scope
This Part establishes the requirements for:
(a) the issue, validity, revalidation and renewal of the medical certificate required for exercising the privileges of a pilot
licence or of a student pilot;
(b) the medical fitness of cabin crew;
(c) the certification of AMEs; and
(d) the qualification of GMPs and of occupational health medical practitioners (OHMP).
MED.A.010 Definitions
For the purpose of this Part, the following definitions apply:
— ‘Accredited medical conclusion’ means the conclusion reached by one or more medical experts acceptable to the
licensing authority, on the basis of objective and non-discriminatory criteria, for the purposes of the case concerned,
in consultation with flight operations or other experts as necessary,
— ‘Assessment’ means the conclusion on the medical fitness of a person based on the evaluation of the person’s medical
history and/or aero-medical examinations as required in this Part and further examinations as necessary, and/or
medical tests such as, but not limited to, ECG, blood pressure measurement, blood testing, X-ray,
— ‘Colour safe’ means the ability of an applicant to readily distinguish the colours used in air navigation and correctly
identify aviation coloured lights,
— ‘Eye specialist’ means an ophthalmologist or a vision care specialist qualified in optometry and trained to recognise
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— ‘Examination’ means an inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation or other means of investigation especially for
diagnosing disease,
— ‘Investigation’ means the assessment of a suspected pathological condition of an applicant by means of examinations
and tests in order to verify the presence or absence of a medical condition,
— ‘Licensing authority’ means the competent authority of the Member State that issued the licence, or to which a person
applies for the issue of a licence, or, when a person has not yet applied for the issue of a licence, the competent
authority in accordance with this Part,
— ‘Limitation’ means a condition placed on the medical certificate, licence or cabin crew medical report that shall be
complied with whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, or cabin crew attestation,
— ‘Refractive error’ means the deviation from emmetropia measured in dioptres in the most ametropic meridian,
measured by standard methods.
MED.A.015 Medical confidentiality
All persons involved in medical examination, assessment and certification shall ensure that medical confidentiality is
respected at all times.
MED.A.020 Decrease in medical fitness
(a) Licence holders shall not exercise the privileges of their licence and related ratings or certificates at any time when
they:
(1) are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those
privileges;
(2) take or use any prescribed or non-prescribed medication which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the
privileges of the applicable licence;
(3) receive any medical, surgical or other treatment that is likely to interfere with flight safety.
(b) In addition, licence holders shall, without undue delay, seek aero-medical advice when they:
(1) have undergone a surgical operation or invasive procedure;
(2) have commenced the regular use of any medication;
(3) have suffered any significant personal injury involving incapacity to function as a member of the flight crew;
(4) have been suffering from any significant illness involving incapacity to function as a member of the flight crew;
(5) are pregnant;
(6) have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic;
(7) first require correcting lenses.
(c) In these cases:
(1) holders of Class 1 and Class 2 medical certificates shall seek the advice of an AeMC or AME. The AeMC or AME
shall assess the medical fitness of the licence holder and decide whether they are fit to resume the exercise of their
privileges;
(2) holders of LAPL medical certificates shall seek the advice of an AeMC or AME, or the GMP who signed the
medical certificate. The AeMC, AME or GMP shall assess the medical fitness of the licence holders and decide
whether they are fit to resume the exercise of their privileges.

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(d) Cabin crew members shall not perform duties on an aircraft and, where applicable, shall not exercise the privileges of
their cabin crew attestation when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness, to the extent that this
condition might render them unable to discharge their safety duties and responsibilities.
(e) In addition, if in the medical conditions specified in (b)(1) to (b)(5), cabin crew members shall, without undue delay,
seek the advice of an AME, AeMC, or OHMP as applicable. The AME, AeMC or OHMP shall assess the medical fitness
of the cabin crew members and decide whether they are fit to resume their safety duties.
MED.A.025 Obligations of AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP
(a) When conducting medical examinations and/or assessments, AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP shall:
(1) ensure that communication with the person can be established without language barriers;
(2) make the person aware of the consequences of providing incomplete, inaccurate or false statements on their
medical history.
(b) After completion of the aero-medical examinations and/or assessment, the AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP shall:
(1) advise the person whether fit, unfit or referred to the licensing authority, AeMC or AME as applicable;
(2) inform the person of any limitation that may restrict flight training or the privileges of the licence, or cabin crew
attestation as applicable;
(3) if the person has been assessed as unfit, inform him/her of his/her right of a secondary review; and
(4) in the case of applicants for a medical certificate, submit without delay a signed, or electronically authenticated,
report to include the assessment result and a copy of the medical certificate to the licensing authority.
(c) AeMCs, AMEs, GMPs and OHMPs shall maintain records with details of medical examinations and assessments
performed in accordance with this Part and their results in accordance with national legislation.
(d) When required for medical certification and/or oversight functions, AeMCs, AMEs, GMPs and OHMP shall submit to
the medical assessor of the competent authority upon request all aero-medical records and reports, and any other
relevant information.
SECTION 2
Requirements for medical certificates
MED.A.030 Medical certificates
(a) A student pilot shall not fly solo unless that student pilot holds a medical certificate, as required for the relevant
licence.
(b) Applicants for and holders of a light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL) shall hold at least an LAPL medical certificate.
(c) Applicants for and holders of a private pilot licence (PPL), a sailplane pilot licence (SPL), or a balloon pilot licence
(BPL) shall hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate.
(d) Applicants for and holders of an SPL or a BPL involved in commercial sailplane or balloon flights shall hold at least a
Class 2 medical certificate.
(e) If a night rating is added to a PPL or LAPL, the licence holder shall be colour safe.
(f) Applicants for and holders of a commercial pilot licence (CPL), a multi-crew pilot licence (MPL), or an airline transport
pilot licence (ATPL) shall hold a Class 1 medical certificate.
(g) If an instrument rating is added to a PPL, the licence holder shall undertake pure tone audiometry examinations in
accordance with the periodicity and the standard required for Class 1 medical certificate holders.
(h) A licence holder shall not at any time hold more than one medical certificate issued in accordance with this Part.

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MED.A.035 Application for a medical certificate
(a) Applications for a medical certificate shall be made in a format established by the competent authority.
(b) Applicants for a medical certificate shall provide the AeMC, AME or GMP as applicable, with:
(1) proof of their identity;
(2) a signed declaration:
(i) of medical facts concerning their medical history;
(ii) as to whether they have previously undergone an examination for a medical certificate and, if so, by whom
and with what result;
(iii) as to whether they have ever been assessed as unfit or had a medical certificate suspended or revoked.
(c) When applying for a revalidation or renewal of the medical certificate, applicants shall present the medical certificate
to the AeMC, AME or GMP prior to the relevant examinations.
MED.A.040 Issue, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates
(a) A medical certificate shall only be issued, revalidated or renewed once the required medical examinations and/or
assessments have been completed and a fit assessment is made.
(b) Initial issue:
(1) Class 1 medical certificates shall be issued by an AeMC.
(2) Class 2 medical certificates shall be issued by an AeMC or an AME.
(3) LAPL medical certificates shall be issued by an AeMC, an AME or, if permitted under the national law of the
Member State where the licence is issued, by a GMP.
(c) Revalidation and renewal:
(1) Class 1 and Class 2 medical certificates shall be revalidated or renewed by an AeMC or an AME.
(2) LAPL medical certificates shall be revalidated or renewed by an AeMC, an AME or, if permitted under the national
law of the Member State where the licence is issued, by a GMP.
(d) The AeMC, AME or GMP shall only issue, revalidate or renew a medical certificate if:
(1) the applicant has provided them with a complete medical history and, if required by the AeMC, AME or GMP,
results of medical examinations and tests conducted by the applicant’s doctor or any medical specialists; and
(2) the AeMC, AME or GMP have conducted the aero-medical assessment based on the medical examinations and
tests as required for the relevant medical certificate to verify that the applicant complies with all the relevant
requirements of this Part.
(e) The AME, AeMC or, in the case of referral, the licensing authority may require the applicant to undergo additional
medical examinations and investigations when clinically indicated before they issue, revalidate or renew a medical
certificate.
(f) The licensing authority may issue or re-issue a medical certificate, as applicable, if:
(1) a case is referred;
(2) it has identified that corrections to the information on the certificate are necessary.

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MED.A.045 Validity, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates
(a) Validity
(1) Class 1 medical certificates shall be valid for a period of 12 months.
(2) The period of validity of Class 1 medical certificates shall be reduced to 6 months for licence holders who:
(i) are engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers and have reached the age
of 40;
(ii) have reached the age of 60.
(3) Class 2 medical certificates shall be valid for a period of:
(i) 60 months until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate issued prior to reaching the
age of 40 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the age of 42;
(ii) 24 months between the age of 40 and 50. A medical certificate issued prior to reaching the age of 50 shall
cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the age of 51; and
(iii) 12 months after the age of 50.
(4) LAPL medical certificates shall be valid for a period of:
(i) 60 months until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate issued prior to reaching the age
of 40 shall cease to be valid after the licence holder reaches the age of 42;
(ii) 24 months after the age of 40.
(5) The validity period of a medical certificate, including any associated examination or special investigation, shall be:
(i) determined by the age of the applicant at the date when the medical examination takes place; and
(ii) calculated from the date of the medical examination in the case of initial issue and renewal, and from the
expiry date of the previous medical certificate in the case of revalidation.
(b) Revalidation
Examinations and/or assessments for the revalidation of a medical certificate may be undertaken up to 45 days prior
to the expiry date of the medical certificate.
(c) Renewal
(1) If the holder of a medical certificate does not comply with (b), a renewal examination and/or assessment shall be
required.
(2) In the case of Class 1 and Class 2 medical certificates:
(i) if the medical certificate has expired for more than 2 years, the AeMC or AME shall only conduct the renewal
examination after assessment of the aero-medical records of the applicant;
(ii) if the medical certificate has expired for more than 5 years, the examination requirements for initial issue shall
apply and the assessment shall be based on the revalidation requirements.
(3) In the case of LAPL medical certificates, the AeMC, AME or GMP shall assess the medical history of the applicant
and perform the aero-medical examination and/or assessment in accordance with MED.B.095.
MED.A.050 Referral
(a) If an applicant for a Class 1 or Class 2 medical certificate is referred to the licensing authority in accordance with
MED. B.001, the AeMC or AME shall transfer the relevant medical documentation to the licensing authority.

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(b) If an applicant for an LAPL medical certificate is referred to an AME or AeMC in accordance with MED.B.001, the
GMP shall transfer the relevant medical documentation to the AeMC or AME.
SUBPART B
REQUIREMENTS FOR PILOT MEDICAL CERTIFICATES
SECTION 1
General
MED.B.001 Limitations to medical certificates
(a) Limitations to Class 1 and Class 2 medical certificates
(1) If the applicant does not fully comply with the requirements for the relevant class of medical certificate but is
considered to be not likely to jeopardise flight safety, the AeMC or AME shall:
(i) in the case of applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate, refer the decision on fitness of the applicant to the
licensing authority as indicated in this Subpart;
(ii) in cases where a referral to the licensing authority is not indicated in this Subpart, evaluate whether the
applicant is able to perform his/her duties safely when complying with one or more limitations endorsed on
the medical certificate, and issue the medical certificate with limitation(s) as necessary;
(iii) in the case of applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate, evaluate whether the applicant is able to perform
his/her duties safely when complying with one or more limitations endorsed on the medical certificate, and
issue the medical certificate, as necessary with limitation(s), in consultation with the licensing authority;
(iv) The AeMC or AME may revalidate or renew a medical certificate with the same limitation without referring
the applicant to the licensing authority.
(b) Limitations to LAPL medical certificates
(1) If a GMP, after due consideration of the applicant’s medical history, concludes that the applicant does not fully
meet the requirements for medical fitness, the GMP shall refer the applicant to an AeMC or AME, except those
requiring a limitation related only to the use of corrective lenses.
(2) If an applicant for an LAPL medical certificate has been referred, the AeMC or AME shall give due consideration to
MED.B.095, evaluate whether the applicant is able to perform their duties safely when complying with one or
more limitations endorsed on the medical certificate and issue the medical certificate with limitation(s) as
necessary. The AeMC or AME shall always consider the need to restrict the pilot from carrying passengers
(Operational Passenger Limitation, OPL).
(3) The GMP may revalidate or renew an LAPL medical certificate with the same limitation without referring the
applicant to an AeMC or AME.
(c) When assessing whether a limitation is necessary, particular consideration shall be given to:
(1) whether accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances the applicant’s failure to meet any
requirement, whether numerical or otherwise, is such that exercise of the privileges of the licence applied for is
not likely to jeopardise flight safety;
(2) the applicant’s ability, skill and experience relevant to the operation to be performed.
(d) Operational limitation codes
(1) Operational multi-pilot limitation (OML — Class 1 only)
(i) When the holder of a CPL, ATPL or MPL does not fully meet the requirements for a Class 1 medical certificate
and has been referred to the licensing authority, it shall be assessed whether the medical certificate may be
issued with an OML ‘valid only as or with qualified co-pilot’. This assessment shall be performed by the
licensing authority.

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(ii) The holder of a medical certificate with an OML shall only operate an aircraft in multi-pilot operations when
the other pilot is fully qualified on the relevant type of aircraft, is not subject to an OML and has not attained
the age of 60 years.
(iii) The OML for Class 1 medical certificates may only be imposed and removed by the licensing authority.
(2) Operational Safety Pilot Limitation (OSL — Class 2 and LAPL privileges)
(i) The holder of a medical certificate with an OSL limitation shall only operate an aircraft if another pilot fully
qualified to act as pilot-in-command on the relevant class or type of aircraft is carried on board, the aircraft is
fitted with dual controls and the other pilot occupies a seat at the controls.
(ii) The OSL for Class 2 medical certificates may be imposed or removed by an AeMC or AME in consultation
with the licensing authority.
(3) Operational Passenger Limitation (OPL — Class 2 and LAPL privileges)
(i) The holder of a medical certificate with an OPL limitation shall only operate an aircraft without passengers on
board.
(ii) An OPL for Class 2 medical certificates may be imposed by an AeMC or AME in consultation with the
licensing authority.
(iii) An OPL for an LAPL medical certificate limitation may be imposed by an AeMC or AME.
(e) Any other limitation may be imposed on the holder of a medical certificate if required to ensure flight safety.
(f) Any limitation imposed on the holder of a medical certificate shall be specified therein.
SECTION 2
Medical requirements for Class 1 and Class 2 medical certificates
MED.B.005 General
(a) Applicants for a medical certificate shall be free from any:
(1) abnormality, congenital or acquired;
(2) active, latent, acute or chronic disease or disability;
(3) wound, injury or sequelae from operation;
(4) effect or side effect of any prescribed or non-prescribed therapeutic, diagnostic or preventive medication taken;
that would entail a degree of functional incapacity which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of
the applicable licence or could render the applicant likely to become suddenly unable to exercise the privileges of the
licence safely.
(b) In cases where the decision on medical fitness of an applicant for a Class 1 medical certificate is referred to the
licensing authority, this authority may delegate such a decision to an AeMC, except in cases where an OML is needed.
(c) In cases where the decision on medical fitness of an applicant for a Class 2 medical certificate is referred to the
licensing authority, this authority may delegate such a decision to an AeMC or an AME, except in cases where an OSL
or OPL is needed.
MED.B.010 Cardiovascular System
(a) Examination
(1) A standard 12-lead resting electrocardiogram (ECG) and report shall be completed on clinical indication, and:
(i) for a Class 1 medical certificate, at the examination for the first issue of a medical certificate, then every 5
years until age 30, every 2 years until age 40, annually until age 50, and at all revalidation or renewal
examinations thereafter;
(ii) for a Class 2 medical certificate, at the first examination after age 40 and then every 2 years after age 50.

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(2) Extended cardiovascular assessment shall be required when clinically indicated.
(3) For a Class 1 medical certificate, an extended cardiovascular assessment shall be completed at the first revalidation
or renewal examination after age 65 and every 4 years thereafter.
(4) For a Class 1 medical certificate, estimation of serum lipids, including cholesterol, shall be required at the
examination for the first issue of a medical certificate, and at the first examination after having reached the
age of 40.
(b) Cardiovascular System — General
(1) Applicants shall not suffer from any cardiovascular disorder which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of
the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(2) Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with any of the following conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) aneurysm of the thoracic or supra-renal abdominal aorta, before or after surgery;
(ii) significant functional abnormality of any of the heart valves;
(iii) heart or heart/lung transplantation.
(3) Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with an established history or diagnosis of any of the following
conditions shall be referred to the licensing authority:
(i) peripheral arterial disease before or after surgery;
(ii) aneurysm of the abdominal aorta, before or after surgery;
(iii) functionally insignificant cardiac valvular abnormalities;
(iv) after cardiac valve surgery;
(v) abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or endocardium;
(vi) congenital abnormality of the heart, before or after corrective surgery;
(vii) recurrent vasovagal syncope;
(viii) arterial or venous thrombosis;
(ix) pulmonary embolism;
(x) cardiovascular condition requiring systemic anticoagulant therapy.
(4) Applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate with an established diagnosis of one of the conditions specified in (2)
and (3) above shall be assessed by a cardiologist before a fit assessment can be considered in consultation with the
licensing authority.
(c) Blood Pressure
(1) The blood pressure shall be recorded at each examination.
(2) The applicant’s blood pressure shall be within normal limits.
(3) Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate:
(i) with symptomatic hypotension; or
(ii) whose blood pressure at examination consistently exceeds 160 mmHg systolic and/or 95 mmHg diastolic,
with or without treatment;
shall be assessed as unfit.

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(4) The initiation of medication for the control of blood pressure shall require a period of temporary suspension of
the medical certificate to establish the absence of significant side effects.
(d) Coronary Artery Disease
(1) Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with:
(i) suspected myocardial ischaemia;
(ii) asymptomatic minor coronary artery disease requiring no anti-anginal treatment;
shall be referred to the licensing authority and undergo cardiological evaluation to exclude myocardial ischaemia
before a fit assessment can be considered.
(2) Applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate with any of the conditions detailed in (1) shall undergo cardiological
evaluation before a fit assessment can be considered.
(3) Applicants with any of the following conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) myocardial ischaemia;
(ii) symptomatic coronary artery disease;
(iii) symptoms of coronary artery disease controlled by medication.
(4) Applicants for the initial issue of a Class 1 medical certificate with a history or diagnosis of any of the following
conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) myocardial ischaemia;
(ii) myocardial infarction;
(iii) revascularisation for coronary artery disease.
(5) Applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate who are asymptomatic following myocardial infarction or surgery for
coronary artery disease shall undergo satisfactory cardiological evaluation before a fit assessment can be
considered in consultation with the licensing authority. Applicants for the revalidation of a Class 1 medical
certificate shall be referred to the licensing authority.
(e) Rhythm/Conduction Disturbances
(1) Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the licensing authority when they have any
significant disturbance of cardiac conduction or rhythm, including any of the following:
(i) disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including intermittent or established sinoatrial dysfunction, atrial
fibrillation and/or flutter and asymptomatic sinus pauses;
(ii) complete left bundle branch block;
(iii) Mobitz type 2 atrioventricular block;
(iv) broad and/or narrow complex tachycardia;
(v) ventricular pre-excitation;
(vi) asymptomatic QT prolongation;
(vii) Brugada pattern on electrocardiography.
(2) Applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate with any of the conditions detailed in (1) shall undergo satisfactory
cardiological evaluation before a fit assessment in consultation with the licensing authority can be considered.

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(3) Applicants with any of the following:
(i) incomplete bundle branch block;
(ii) complete right bundle branch block;
(iii) stable left axis deviation;
(iv) asymptomatic sinus bradycardia;
(v) asymptomatic sinus tachycardia;
(vi) asymptomatic isolated uniform supra-ventricular or ventricular ectopic complexes;
(vii) first degree atrioventricular block;
(viii) Mobitz type 1 atrioventricular block;
may be assessed as fit in the absence of any other abnormality and subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(4) Applicants with a history of:
(i) ablation therapy;
(ii) pacemaker implantation;
shall undergo satisfactory cardiovascular evaluation before a fit assessment can be considered. Applicants for a
Class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the licensing authority. Applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate
shall be assessed in consultation with the licensing authority.
(5) Applicants with any of the following conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) symptomatic sinoatrial disease;
(ii) complete atrioventricular block;
(iii) symptomatic QT prolongation;
(iv) an automatic implantable defibrillating system;
(v) a ventricular anti-tachycardia pacemaker.
MED.B.015 Respiratory System
(a) Applicants with significant impairment of pulmonary function shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered once pulmonary function has recovered and is satisfactory.
(b) For a Class 1 medical certificate, applicants are required to undertake pulmonary function tests at the initial exam
ination and on clinical indication.
(c) For a Class 2 medical certificate, applicants are required to undertake pulmonary function tests on clinical indication.
(d) Applicants with a history or established diagnosis of:
(1) asthma requiring medication;
(2) active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system;
(3) active sarcoidosis;
(4) pneumothorax;
(5) sleep apnoea syndrome;

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(6) major thoracic surgery;
(7) pneumonectomy;
shall undergo respiratory evaluation with a satisfactory result before a fit assessment can be considered. Applicants
with an established diagnosis of the conditions specified in (3) and (5) shall undergo satisfactory cardiological
evaluation before a fit assessment can be considered.
(e) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with any of the conditions detailed in (d) above shall be referred to the
licensing authority;
(2) applicants for a Class 2 medical certificate with any of the conditions detailed in (d) above shall be assessed in
consultation with the licensing authority.
(f) Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate who have undergone a total pneumonectomy shall be assessed as unfit.
MED.B.020 Digestive System
(a) Applicants shall not possess any functional or structural disease of the gastro-intestinal tract or its adnexa which is
likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Applicants with any sequelae of disease or surgical intervention in any part of the digestive tract or its adnexa likely to
cause incapacitation in flight, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or compression shall be assessed as unfit.
(c) Applicants shall be free from herniae that might give rise to incapacitating symptoms.
(d) Applicants with disorders of the gastro-intestinal system including:
(1) recurrent dyspeptic disorder requiring medication;
(2) pancreatitis;
(3) symptomatic gallstones;
(4) an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease;
(5) after surgical operation on the digestive tract or its adnexa, including surgery involving total or partial excision or
a diversion of any of these organs;
shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered after successful treatment or full recovery after surgery
and subject to satisfactory gastroenterological evaluation.
(e) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with the diagnosis of the conditions specified in (2), (4) and (5) shall be
referred to the licensing authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants with pancreatitis shall be assessed in consultation with the licensing authority.
MED.B.025 Metabolic and Endocrine Systems
(a) Applicants shall not possess any functional or structural metabolic, nutritional or endocrine disorder which is likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction may be assessed as fit subject to demonstrated
stability of the condition and satisfactory aero-medical evaluation.
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(1) Applicants with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin shall be assessed as unfit.
(2) Applicants with diabetes mellitus not requiring insulin shall be assessed as unfit unless it can be demonstrated that
blood sugar control has been achieved.

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(d) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate requiring medication other than insulin for blood sugar control shall be
referred to the licensing authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants requiring medication other than insulin for blood sugar control shall be assessed in
consultation with the licensing authority.
MED.B.030 Haematology
(a) Applicants shall not possess any haematological disease which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the
privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) For a Class 1 medical certificate, haemoglobin shall be tested at each examination for the issue of a medical certificate.
(c) Applicants with a haematological condition, such as:
(1) coagulation, haemorragic or thrombotic disorder;
(2) chronic leukaemia;
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory aeromedical evaluation.
(d) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with one of the conditions specified in (c) above shall be referred to the
licensing authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants with one of the conditions specified in (c) above shall be assessed in consultation with
the licensing authority.
(e) Class 1 applicants with one of the haematological conditions specified below shall be referred to the licensing
authority:
(1) abnormal haemoglobin, including, but not limited to anaemia, polycythaemia or haemoglobinopathy;
(2) significant lymphatic enlargement;
(3) enlargement of the spleen.
MED.B.035 Genitourinary System
(a) Applicants shall not possess any functional or structural disease of the renal or genito-urinary system or its adnexa
which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Urinalysis shall form part of every aero-medical examination. The urine shall contain no abnormal element considered
to be of pathological significance.
(c) Applicants with any sequela of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys or the urinary tract likely to cause
incapacitation, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or compression shall be assessed as unfit.
(d) Applicants with a genitourinary disorder, such as:
(1) renal disease;
(2) one or more urinary calculi, or a history of renal colic;
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory renal/urological evaluation.
(e) Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation in the urinary apparatus involving a total or partial
excision or a diversion of its organs shall be assessed as unfit and be re-assessed after full recovery before a fit
assessment can be considered. Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the licensing authority
for the re-assessment.

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MED.B.040 Infectious Disease
(a) Applicants shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any infectious disease which is likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence held.
(b) Applicants who are HIV positive may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory aero-medical evaluation. Applicants for a
Class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the licensing authority.
MED.B.045 Obstetrics and Gynaecology
(a) Applicants shall not possess any functional or structural obstetric or gynaecological condition which is likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Applicants who have undergone a major gynaecological operation shall be assessed as unfit until full recovery.
(c) Pregnancy
(1) In the case of pregnancy, if the AeMC or AME considers that the licence holder is fit to exercise her privileges,
he/she shall limit the validity period of the medical certificate to the end of the 26th week of gestation. After this
point, the certificate shall be suspended. The suspension shall be lifted after full recovery following the end of the
pregnancy.
(2) Holders of Class 1 medical certificates shall only exercise the privileges of their licences until the 26th week of
gestation with an OML. Notwithstanding MED. B.001 in this case, the OML may be imposed and removed by the
AeMC or AME.
MED.B.050 Musculoskeletal System
(a) Applicants shall not possess any abnormality of the bones, joints, muscles or tendons, congenital or acquired which is
likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) An applicant shall have sufficient sitting height, arm and leg length and muscular strength for the safe exercise of the
privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(c) An applicant shall have satisfactory functional use of the musculoskeletal system to enable the safe exercise of the
privileges of the applicable licence(s). Fitness of the applicants shall be assessed in consultation with the licensing
authority.
MED.B.055 Psychiatry
(a) Applicants shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any psychiatric disease or disability,
condition or disorder, acute or chronic, congenital or acquired, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the
privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Applicants with a mental or behavioural disorder due to alcohol or other use or abuse of psychotropic substances
shall be assessed as unfit pending recovery and freedom from substance use and subject to satisfactory psychiatric
evaluation after successful treatment. Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the licensing
authority. Fitness of Class 2 applicants shall be assessed in consultation with the licensing authority.
(c) Applicants with a psychiatric condition such as:
(1) mood disorder;
(2) neurotic disorder;
(3) personality disorder;
(4) mental or behavioural disorder;
shall undergo satisfactory psychiatric evaluation before a fit assessment can be made.
(d) Applicants with a history of a single or repeated acts of deliberate self-harm shall be assessed as unfit. Applicants shall
undergo satisfactory psychiatric evaluation before a fit assessment can be considered.

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(e) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with one of the conditions detailed in (b), (c) or (d) above shall be
referred to the licensing authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants with one of the conditions detailed in (b), (c) or (d) above shall be assessed in
consultation with the licensing authority.
(f) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of schizophrenia, schizotypal or delusional disorder shall
be assessed as unfit.
MED.B.060 Psychology
(a) Applicants shall have no established psychological deficiencies, which are likely to interfere with the safe exercise of
the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) A psychological evaluation may be required as part of, or complementary to, a specialist psychiatric or neurological
examination.
MED.B.065 Neurology
(a) Applicants shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any neurological condition which is likely
to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of:
(1) epilepsy;
(2) recurring episodes of disturbance of consciousness of uncertain cause;
shall be assessed as unfit.
(c) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of:
(1) epilepsy without recurrence after age 5;
(2) epilepsy without recurrence and off all treatment for more than 10 years;
(3) epileptiform EEG abnormalities and focal slow waves;
(4) progressive or non-progressive disease of the nervous system;
(5) a single episode of disturbance of consciousness of uncertain cause;
(6) loss of consciousness after head injury;
(7) penetrating brain injury;
(8) spinal or peripheral nerve injury;
shall undergo further evaluation before a fit assessment can be considered. Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate
shall be referred to the licensing authority. Fitness of Class 2 applicants shall be assessed in consultation with the
licensing authority.
MED.B.070 Visual System
(a) Applicants shall not possess any abnormality of the function of the eyes or their adnexa or any active pathological
condition, congenital or acquired, acute or chronic, or any sequelae of eye surgery or trauma, which is likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).

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(b) Examination
(1) For a Class 1 medical certificate:
(i) a comprehensive eye examination shall form part of the initial examination and be undertaken periodically
depending on the refraction and the functional performance of the eye; and
(ii) a routine eye examination shall form part of all revalidation and renewal examinations.
(2) For a Class 2 medical certificate:
(i) a routine eye examination shall form part of the initial and all revalidation and renewal examinations; and
(ii) a comprehensive eye examination shall be undertaken when clinically indicated.
(c) Distant visual acuity, with or without correction, shall be:
(1) in the case of Class 1 medical certificates, 6/9 (0,7) or better in each eye separately and visual acuity with both
eyes shall be 6/6 (1,0) or better;
(2) in the case of Class 2 medical certificates, 6/12 (0,5) or better in each eye separately and visual acuity with both
eyes shall be 6/9 (0,7) or better. An applicant with substandard vision in one eye may be assessed as fit in
consultation with the licensing authority subject to satisfactory ophthalmic assessment;
(3) applicants for an initial Class 1 medical certificate with substandard vision in one eye shall be assessed as unfit. At
revalidation, applicants with acquired substandard vision in one eye shall be referred to the licensing authority and
may be assessed as fit if it is unlikely to interfere with safe exercise of the licence held.
(d) An applicant shall be able to read an N5 chart (or equivalent) at 30-50 cm and an N14 chart (or equivalent) at
100 cm, with correction, if prescribed.
(e) Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate shall be required to have normal fields of vision and normal binocular
function.
(f) Applicants who have undergone eye surgery may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory ophthalmic evaluation.
(g) Applicants with a clinical diagnosis of keratoconus may be assessed as fit subject to a satisfactory examination by an
ophthalmologist. Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the licensing authority.
(h) Applicants with:
(1) astigmatism;
(2) anisometropia;
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory ophthalmic evaluation.
(i) Applicants with diplopia shall be assessed as unfit.
(j) Spectacles and contact lenses. If satisfactory visual function is achieved only with the use of correction:
(1) (i) for distant vision, spectacles or contact lenses shall be worn whilst exercising the privileges of the applicable
licence(s);
(ii) for near vision, a pair of spectacles for near use shall be kept available during the exercise of the privileges of
the licence;
(2) a spare set of similarly correcting spectacles shall be readily available for immediate use whilst exercising the
privileges of the applicable licence(s);
(3) the correction shall provide optimal visual function, be well-tolerated and suitable for aviation purposes;
(4) if contact lenses are worn, they shall be for distant vision, monofocal, non-tinted and well tolerated;
(5) applicants with a large refractive error shall use contact lenses or high-index spectacle lenses;

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(6) no more than one pair of spectacles shall be used to meet the visual requirements;
(7) orthokeratological lenses shall not be used.
MED.B.075 Colour vision
(a) Applicants shall be required to demonstrate the ability to perceive readily the colours that are necessary for the safe
performance of duties.
(b) Examination
(1) Applicants shall pass the Ishihara test for the initial issue of a medical certificate.
(2) Applicants who fail to pass in the Ishihara test shall undergo further colour perception testing to establish whether
they are colour safe.
(c) In the case of Class 1 medical certificates, applicants shall have normal perception of colours or be colour safe.
Applicants who fail further colour perception testing shall be assessed as unfit. Applicants for a Class 1 medical
certificate shall be referred to the licensing authority.
(d) In the case of Class 2 medical certificates, when the applicant does not have satisfactory perception of colours, his/her
flying privileges shall be limited to daytime only.
MED.B.080 Otorhino-laryngology
(a) Applicants shall not possess any abnormality of the function of the ears, nose, sinuses or throat, including oral cavity,
teeth and larynx, or any active pathological condition, congenital or acquired, acute or chronic, or any sequelae of
surgery or trauma which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Hearing shall be satisfactory for the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(c) Examination
(1) Hearing shall be tested at all examinations.
(i) In the case of Class 1 medical certificates and Class 2 medical certificates, when an instrument rating is to be
added to the licence held, hearing shall be tested with pure tone audiometry at the initial examination and, at
subsequent revalidation or renewal examinations, every 5 years until the age 40 and every 2 years thereafter.
(ii) When tested on a pure-tone audiometer, initial applicants shall not have a hearing loss of more than 35 dB at
any of the frequencies 500, 1 000 or 2 000 Hz, or more than 50 dB at 3 000 Hz, in either ear separately.
Applicants for revalidation or renewal, with greater hearing loss shall demonstrate satisfactory functional
hearing ability.
(iii) Applicants with hypoacusis shall demonstrate satisfactory functional hearing ability.
(2) A comprehensive ear, nose and throat examination shall be undertaken for the initial issue of a Class 1 medical
certificate and periodically thereafter when clinically indicated.
(d) Applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with:
(1) an active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal or middle ear;
(2) unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membrane(s);
(3) disturbance of vestibular function;
(4) significant restriction of the nasal passages;
(5) sinus dysfunction;
(6) significant malformation or significant, acute or chronic infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract;
(7) significant disorder of speech or voice;
shall undergo further medical examination and assessment to establish that the condition does not interfere with the
safe exercise of the privileges of the licence held.

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(e) Aero-medical assessment:
(1) applicants for a Class 1 medical certificate with the disturbance of vestibular function shall be referred to the
licensing authority;
(2) fitness of Class 2 applicants with the disturbance of vestibular function shall be assessed in consultation with the
licensing authority.
MED.B.085 Dermatology
Applicants shall have no established dermatological condition likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of
the applicable licence(s) held.
MED.B.090 Oncology
(a) Applicants shall have no established primary or secondary malignant disease likely to interfere with the safe exercise
of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) After treatment for malignant disease, applicants shall undergo satisfactory oncological evaluation before a fit
assessment can be made. Class 1 applicants shall be referred to the licensing authority. Fitness of Class 2 applicants
shall be assessed in consultation with the licensing authority.
(c) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of intracerebral malignant tumour shall be assessed as
unfit.
SECTION 3
Specific requirements for LAPL medical certificates
MED.B.095 Medical examination and/or assessment of applicants for LAPL medical certificates
(a) An applicant for an LAPL medical certificate shall be assessed based on aero-medical best practice.
(b) Special attention shall be given to the applicant’s complete medical history.
(c) The initial assessment, all subsequent re-assessments after age 50 and assessments in cases where the medical history
of the applicant is not available to the examiner shall include at least the following:
(1) clinical examination;
(2) blood pressure;
(3) urine test;
(4) vision;
(5) hearing ability.
(d) After the initial assessment, subsequent re-assessments until age 50 shall include:
(1) an assessment of the LAPL holder’s medical history; and
(2) the items under paragraph (c) as deemed necessary by the AeMC, AME or GMP in accordance with aero-medical
best practice.
SUBPART C
REQUIREMENTS FOR MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW
SECTION 1
General requirements
MED.C.001 General
Cabin crew members shall only perform the duties and responsibilities required by aviation safety rules on an aircraft if
they comply with the applicable requirements of this Part.

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MED.C.005 Aero-medical assessments
(a) Cabin crew members shall undergo aero-medical assessments to verify that they are free from any physical or mental
illness which might lead to incapacitation or an inability to perform their assigned safety duties and responsibilities.
(b) Each cabin crew member shall undergo an aero-medical assessment before being first assigned to duties on an aircraft,
and after that at intervals of maximum 60 months.
(c) Aero-medical assessments shall be conducted by an AME, AeMC, or by an OHMP if the requirements of MED.D.040
are complied with.
SECTION 2
Requirements for aero-medical assessment of cabin crew
MED.C.020 General
Cabin crew members shall be free from any:
(a) abnormality, congenital or acquired;
(b) active, latent, acute or chronic disease or disability;
(c) wound, injury or sequelae from operation; and
(d) effect or side effect of any prescribed or non-prescribed therapeutic, diagnostic or preventive medication taken that
would entail a degree of functional incapacity which might lead to incapacitation or an inability to discharge their
safety duties and responsibilities.
MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments
(a) An initial aero-medical assessment shall include at least:
(1) an assessment of the applicant cabin crew member’s medical history; and
(2) a clinical examination of the following:
(i) cardiovascular system;
(ii) respiratory system;
(iii) musculoskeletal system;
(iv) otorhino-laryngology;
(v) visual system; and
(vi) colour vision.
(b) Each subsequent aero-medical re-assessment shall include:
(1) an assessment of the cabin crew member’s medical history; and
(2) a clinical examination if deemed necessary in accordance with aero-medical best practice.
(c) For the purpose of (a) and (b), in case of any doubt or if clinically indicated, a cabin crew member’s aero-medical
assessment shall also include any additional medical examination, test or investigation that are considered necessary
by the AME, AeMC or OHMP.
SECTION 3
Additional requirements for applicants for, or holders of, a cabin crew attestation
MED.C.030 Cabin crew medical report
(a) After completion of each aero-medical assessment, applicants for, and holders of, a cabin crew attestation:
(1) shall be provided with a cabin crew medical report by the AME, AeMC or OHMP; and

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(2) shall provide the related information, or a copy of their cabin crew medical report to the operator(s) employing
their services.
(b) Cabin crew medical report
A cabin crew medical report shall indicate the date of the aero-medical assessment, whether the cabin crew member
has been assessed fit or unfit, the date of the next required aero-medical assessment and, if applicable, any limi
tation(s). Any other elements shall be subject to medical confidentiality in accordance with MED.A.015.
MED.C.035 Limitations
(a) If holders of a cabin crew attestation do not fully comply with the medical requirements specified in Section 2, the
AME, AeMC or OHMP shall consider whether they may be able to perform cabin crew duties safely if complying with
one or more limitations.
(b) Any limitation(s) to the exercise of the privileges granted by the cabin crew attestation shall be specified on the cabin
crew medical report and shall only be removed by an AME, AeMC or by an OHMP in consultation with an AME.
SUBPART D
AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS (OHMP)
SECTION 1
Aero-Medical Examiners
MED.D.001 Privileges
(a) The privileges of an AME are to issue, revalidate and renew Class 2 medical certificates and LAPL medical certificates,
and to conduct the relevant medical examinations and assessments.
(b) Holders of an AME certificate may apply for an extension of their privileges to include medical examinations for the
revalidation and renewal of Class 1 medical certificates, if they comply with the requirements in MED.D.015.
(c) The scope of the privileges of the AME, and any condition thereof, shall be specified in the certificate.
(d) Holders of a certificate as an AME shall not undertake aero-medical examinations and assessments in a Member State
other than the Member State that issued their certificate as an AME, unless they have:
(1) been granted access by the host Member State to exercise their professional activities as a specialised doctor;
(2) informed the competent authority of the host Member State of their intention to conduct aero-medical exam
inations and assessments and to issue medical certificates within the scope of their privileges as AME; and
(3) received a briefing from the competent authority of the host Member State.
MED.D.005 Application
(a) Application for a certificate as an AME shall be made in a form and manner specified by the competent authority.
(b) Applicants for an AME certificate shall provide the competent authority with:
(1) personal details and professional address;
(2) documentation demonstrating that they comply with the requirements established in MED.D.010, including a
certificate of completion of the training course in aviation medicine appropriate to the privileges they apply for;
(3) a written declaration that the AME will issue medical certificates on the basis of the requirements of this Part.
(c) When the AME undertakes aero-medical examinations in more than one location, they shall provide the competent
authority with relevant information regarding all practice locations.

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MED.D.010 Requirements for the issue of an AME certificate
Applicants for an AME certificate with the privileges for the initial issue, revalidation and renewal of Class 2 medical
certificates shall:
(a) be fully qualified and licensed for the practice of medicine and hold a Certificate of Completion of specialist training;
(b) have undertaken a basic training course in aviation medicine;
(c) demonstrate to the competent authority that they:
(1) have adequate facilities, procedures, documentation and functioning equipment suitable for aero-medical exam
inations; and
(2) have in place the necessary procedures and conditions to ensure medical confidentiality.
MED.D.015 Requirements for the extension of privileges
Applicants for an AME certificate extending their privileges to the revalidation and renewal of Class 1 medical certificates
shall hold a valid certificate as an AME and have:
(a) conducted at least 30 examinations for the issue, revalidation or renewal of Class 2 medical certificates over a period
of no more than 5 years preceding the application;
(b) undertaken an advanced training course in aviation medicine; and
(c) undergone practical training at an AeMC or under supervision of the licensing authority.
MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine
(a) Training courses in aviation medicine shall be approved by the competent authority of the Member State where the
organisation providing it has its principal place of business. The organisation providing the course shall demonstrate
that the course syllabus is adequate and that the persons in charge of providing the training have adequate knowledge
and experience.
(b) Except in the case of refresher training, the courses shall be concluded by a written examination on the subjects
included in the course content.
(c) The organisation providing the course shall issue a certificate of completion to applicants when they have obtained a
pass in the examination.
MED.D.025 Changes to the AME certificate
(a) AMEs shall notify the competent authority of the following changes which could affect their certificate:
(1) the AME is subject to disciplinary proceedings or investigation by a medical regulatory body;
(2) there are any changes to the conditions on which the certificate was granted, including the content of the
statements provided with the application;
(3) the requirements for the issue are no longer met;
(4) there is a change of aero-medical examiner’s practice location(s) or correspondence address.
(b) Failure to inform the competent authority shall result in the suspension or revocation of the privileges of the
certificate, on the basis of the decision of the competent authority that suspends or revokes the certificate.
MED.D.030 Validity of AME certificates
An AME certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding 3 years. It shall be revalidated subject to the holder:
(a) continuing to fulfil the general conditions required for medical practice and maintaining registration as a medical
practitioner according to national law;
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(c) having performed at least 10 aero-medical examinations every year;
(d) remaining in compliance with the terms of their certificate; and
(e) exercising their privileges in accordance with this Part.
SECTION 2
General Medical Practitioners (GMPs)
MED.D.035 Requirements for general medical practitioners
(a) GMPs shall act as AMEs for issuing LAPL medical certificates only:
(1) if they exercise their activity in a Member State where GMPs have appropriate access to the full medical records of
applicants; and
(2) in accordance with any additional requirements established under national law.
(b) In order to issue LAPL medical certificates, general medical practitioners (GMP) shall be fully qualified and licensed for
the practice of medicine in accordance with national law.
(c) GMPs acting as AMEs shall notify their activity to the competent authority.
SECTION 3
Occupational Health Medical Practitioners (OHMP)
MED.D.040 Requirements for occupational health medical practitioners
OHMPs shall only conduct aero-medical assessments of cabin crew if:
(a) the competent authority is satisfied that the relevant national occupational health system can ensure compliance with
the applicable requirements of this Part;
(b) they are licensed in the practice of medicine and qualified in occupational medicine in accordance with national law;
and
(c) have acquired knowledge in aviation medicine as relevant to the operating environment of cabin crew.

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